Welcome to impostersyndromel1000โs page.
Contributor score: 42
Comments ...
sunny
i think C is type III
+3
sunny
i think C is type III
+1
dentist
In Type III HS, First C happens then then D happens
+1
Subcomments ...
aaftabsethi1
How the hell did pediculus spread in the class . Who is having head to head contact there ?
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impostersyndromel1000
they probably were assigned group projects where the teacher asked them to put their heads together ;-)
+1
pseudorosette
I would say because this happened between two bacteria, but in transduction what causes the acquisition of bacterial resistance is coming from a bacteriophage, which is a virus that infects bacteria, but that is never hinted at the question!
+5
medpsychosis
Quick Overview of the involved topics and answer choices that are relevant in this question:
Transduction: Involves phage, cleaves DNA and takes a part with it as it is packaged. Generalized is when is happens by accident. Specialized is an excision event.
Transformation: bacteria takes up naked DNA around it and incorporates it therefore becoming "transformed" e.g. (SHiN) S. Pneuma, H. Influenza type B, and Neisseria.
Transposition: Jumping from one location to another within same bacterial organism (e.g. from chromosome to plasmid)
Conjugation: Above mentioned plasmid gets transferred from conjugal bridge from one bacteria to another.
+21
zbird
Easy here...first both are G-ves which likely have a sex pilus and if cultured together as in this case transfer their plasmid. Transduction need phage. Transposition is exchange of genetic material inside the bacteria b/n the dna and the plasmid or vv (FA2019)
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impostersyndromel1000
how much time do you really save by saying G-ves instead of gram negs or negatives
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unknown001
can someone explain why it isnt transposition.
reason why it isnt transformation is there is nothing in the broth that will cleave the bacteria, to have naked dna that can be picked up
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lispectedwumbologist
That's so infuriating I stared at this question for 20 minutes thinking I did something wrong
+85
seagull
lol..my math never worked either. I also just chose the closest number. also, screw this question author for doing that.
+10
ht3
this is why you never waste 7 minutes on a question.... because of shit like this
+9
yotsubato
Why the FUCK did they not just give us a clearance of 0.1 if they're going to fuckin round it anyways...
+21
cr
in ur maths, why did u put 24h/1day and not 1day/24h? if the given Cl was 0.09L/hr/kg. I know it just is a math question, but iยดd appreciate if someone could explain it.
+1
hyperfukus
magic math!!!!! how TF r we supposed to know when they round and when they don't like wtf im so pissed someone please tell me step isn't like this...with such precise decimal answers and a calculator fxn you would assume they wanted an actual answer!
+1
jean_young2019
OMG, I've got the 25.92 mg/kg/day, which isn't any of the answer choices listed. So I chose the D 51.8, because 51.8 is double of 25.9......I thought I must have make a mistake during the calculation ......
+7
atbangura
They purposely did that so if you made a mistake with your conversion like I did, you might end up with 2.5 which was one of the answer choices. SMH
+7
titanesxvi
I did well, but I thought that my mistake was something to do with the conversion and end up choosing 2.5 because it is similar to 25.92
+4
makinallkindzofgainz
The fact that we pay these people 60 dollars a pop for poorly formatted and written exams boggles my mind, and yet here I am, about to buy Form 24
+23
frustratedllama
Not only do you feel like you're doing sth wrong but then that feeling stays for other questions. sucks so baad
+1
fexx
'here.. take 50mg of vyvanse.. I just rounded it up from 30.. dw you'll be fine' (totally doing this with my patients 8-))
+1
cbreland
I was so close to picking 2.5 because I thought I did a conversion error. 5 minutes later and still didn't feel comfortable picking 28.8๐ก
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yesa
12ug/ml = 12mg/L; 12mg/L x .1L/hr/kg x 24hr/day = 28.8. No need to multiple numerators and denominators by 1000s
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chaosawaits
What really grinds my gears is that 3/5 answer choices are closely related to using 0.09 instead of 0.1 (A is 25.92/10, D is 25.92*2, and B is D/10). So basically, we're supposed to know to round 0.09 up to 0.1 but also to not round 12 down to 10. Okay?
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impostersyndromel1000
so you're telling me that I did all my math correctly, got 25.92 then thought I was off by a decimal point and chose 2.5 bc 25.9 wasn't an option and I was actually correct in my math but wrong bc THEY DIDNT PUT THE RIGHT ANSWER? Why is NBME so trash? I hope real exam isnt this bad.
+1
impostersyndromel1000
as an aspiring MSK radiologist im really upset I missed this. Thanks for explanation.
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usmleboy
Gaaaaaatttoooraaddeeee!
Water sucks! It really really sucks!
+3
skonys
Any hydrohomies? My patient's will be getting straight RO water to the neck. None of that heretical devil-drink.
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chaosawaits
@rockodude, if only FSU had made it; we'd all be drinking Seminole Fluid ;)
+1
btl_nyc
The increased testosterone is metabolized by granulosa cells to estrogen and by adipose tissue into estrone. Both feed back on the hypothalamus to inhibit FSH & LH secretion, but FSH is much more sensitive to feedback inhibition than LH, causing an increased LH/FSH ratio.
+1
impostersyndromel1000
@sup, i did the same thing. Had no idea testosterone and androgens can increase epo
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impostersyndromel1000
This was in pathoma, he said prostate cancer causes osteoblastic lesions and "the board examiners really want you to know that". also following the potential site of mets helps choose the answer
+2
snripper
Also, osteosarcoma is less common in the elderly, more common in males <20 y/o (per F.A 2020)
+2
homersimpson
Osteosarcoma causes lytic bone lesions @cocoxarus
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chaosawaits
I definitely overthought this one to death. I had prostate adenocarcinoma, but then reread it to make sure I wasn't missing anything. The normal referenced labs made me reconsider. So I chose osteosarcoma. If anyone could explain the normal labs (no elevated ALP), I'd appreciate it.
+1
someduck3
Is this the best approach to all of the "strongest predisposing risk factor" type questions?
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drdoom
There is a town of 1,000 men. Nine hundred of them work as lawyers. The other 100 are engineers. Tom is from this town. He rides his bike to work. In his free time, he likes solving math puzzles. He built his own computer. What is Tom's occupation most likely to be? Answer: Tom is most likely to be a lawyer! Don't let assumptions distract you from the overwhelming force of sheer probability! "Given that Tom is from this town, his most likely occupation (from the available data) = lawyer."
+4
drdoom
There is a town of 1,000 spontaneous pneumo patients. Six hundred are tall, thin and male. The other 400 are something else. Two hundred of the 1,000 smoke cigarettes. The other 800 do not. What risk factor is most strongly associated with spontaneous pneumo? (Answer: Not being a smoker! ... because out of 1,000 people, the most common trait is NOT smoking [800 members].)
+5
belleng
beautiful! also, i think about odds ratio vs. relative risk...odds ratio is retrospective of case-control studies to find risk factor or exposure that correlates with grater ratio of disease. relative risk is an estimation of incidence in the future when looking at different cohort studies.
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drdoom
@impostersyndrome I love me some probability and statistics. Glad my rant was useful :P
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hyperfukus
@drdoom
i hate it which is why your rant was extremely useful lol i learned a ton thanks dr.doom!
+1
dubywow
I caught he was thin. The only reason I didn't pick Gender and body habitus is because he was not overly tall (5'10"). I talked myself out of it because I thought the body habitus was too "normal" because he was not both thin AND tall. Got to keep telling myself to not think too hard on these. Thanks for the explanation.
+1
taediggity
It isn't just that this person has Ehlers Danlos and they're more prone to spontaneous pneumo???
+2
wutuwantbruv
Correct, you would not want to give fibrates to someone with recurrent pancreatitis since fibrates increase the risk of cholesterol gallstones due to inhibition of cholesterol 7ฮฑ-hydroxylase.
+2
kernicterusthefrog
FYI @gh889 can't follow your link w/o an NYIT username and password, unless there's a more tech-savvy way around that.. I appreciate the info, though. Niacin rx for familial hypertriglyceridemia w/ recurrent pancreatitis. Now I know..
+4
impostersyndromel1000
Great points, very in depth knowledge taking place here. Also, familial hypertriglyceridemia (per FA 2019 pg 94) has hepatic overproduction of VLDL so picking this would have been the easiest answer (in retrospect)
+4
hyperfukus
@impostersyndrome1000 literally that's the ONE thing i remembered and i went YOLO lol cuz i was staring for a while
+2
osler_weber_rendu
@gh889 I agree niacin is the answer, but even niacin causes increase in HDL.
As if getting to the drug wasnt tough enough, NBME puts two of its actions in the options! What a shit question
+3
mtkilimanjaro
I forget where I saw (maybe UWorld), but I always thought increasing HDL is never really a primary form of lipid control. You want to lower the bad cholesterol etc. since increasing good cholesterol wont change LDL VLDL etc.
+2
jaramaiha
@mtkilimanjaro I believe it was in BnB. Dr.Ryan mentioned that there hasn't been enough evidence that raising HDL would be beneficial as far as lipid control goes. Better studies were done on statins hence why they are usually first line Tx.
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impostersyndromel1000
thanks for the reminder, often overlooked are the simple demographic hints. helps you make an educated guess
+2
hyperfukus
also a key thing to remember in general is a person who undergoes chemo is a big demographic hint to later developing AML regardless of the clues :) and yes the AGE!!!
+4
keycompany
Additionally, AML is the only answer choice that has multiple blast forms (myeloblasts, promyelocytes, etc.). ALL is characterized by a single blast form (lymphoblasts).
+31
seagull
CML has blasts too but they tend to favor mature forms.
+5
kash1f
You see numerous blast forms == AML, which is characterized by >20% blasts
+11
keycompany
The answer choices are all of lymphoid origin except for AML and Hodgkin Disease. We know Hodgkin Disease is a lymphoma (not leukemia) and would present with lymphadenoapthy. So the answer must be AML #testtakingstrategies
+13
impostersyndromel1000
@atstillisafraud thanks for mentioning the merchlorethamine increasing risk for AML, i was trying to make a connection with the drugs but couldnt. Had to lean on the test taking skills just like key company
+2
sweetmed
Procarbazine is alkylating as well.
+1
pg32
@keycompany how did you know the phrase "multiple blast forms" meant literally different types of blasts and not just many blast cells were seen?
+4
jurrutia
@keycompany, how did you know it had to be of myeloid origin?
+1
keycompany
EDIT: Via the **Haldane Effect**, not the Bohr Effect.
+1
impostersyndromel1000
to all my public school peeps out there (and not the nice public schools in rich areas, the real public schools)... we made it!
+4
angelaq11
Thankfully I was taught how to convert units, but let me tell you that I was SO lost on this one. It's USELESS to know how to do it if you (I, I mean I) don't know the damn formula xD. Obviously got this one wrong, but it's good to know that if it ever comes up again (and I know it won't) I already know it.
+2
impostersyndromel1000
no, basically the question is testing if you know the branches of the abdominal aorta and which is closest to the renal (in this case, inferior to the renal arteries)
+2
impostersyndromel1000
no, basically the question is testing if you know the branches of the abdominal aorta and which is closest to the renal (in this case, inferior to the renal arteries)
+2
paloma
Essential thrombocythemia presents with platelets > 1 million, not reactive thrombocytosis
+2
impostersyndromel1000
are you able to clarify that phosphorylated myosin light chain kinase from cAMP/PKA and dephosphorylated myosin light chain from cGMP both cause smooth muscle relaxation?
saw this on another Q with the nitrates causing headache so now im confused
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dubywow
@impostersyndromel1000: Here is an image that summarizes cAMP and cGMP actions in smooth muscle cell very will. Hope it helps. link
+3
castlblack
cAMP INHIBITS myosin light chain kinase causing relaxation according to FA 2020 pg. 317
+3
niboonsh
Autosomal Dominant disorders usually present as defects in structural genes, where as Autosomal Recessive disorders usually present as enzyme deficiencies. P450 is an enzyme, so we are probably dealing with an autosomal recessive disorder. furthermore, the question states there was a "homozygous presence of p450.....". In autosomal recessive problemos, parents are usually heterozygous, meaning that 1/4 of their kiddos will be affected (aka homozygous), 1/2 of the kids will be carriers, and 1/4 of their kids will be unaffected.
+38
nwinkelmann
Is this how we should attack this probelm?: First clue stating endoxifen is active metabolite of Tamoxifen should make us recognize this undering first pass hepatic CYP450 metabolism? Once we know that, the fact that the metabolite is decrease suggests an enzyme defect, which is supported by patient's homozygous enzyme alleles. Then use the general rule that enzyme defects are AR whereas structural protein defects are AD inheritance patters. Once we know the pattern, think that most common transmission of AR comes from two carrier parents. So offspring alleles = 25% homozygous normal, 50% heterozygous carrier, and 25% homozygous affected, thus sister has a 25% of having the same alleles as patient (i.e. homozygous CYP450 2D6*4)?
+6
impostersyndromel1000
we had the exact same thought process, so i too am hoping this is the correct way to approach it
get reasoning friend
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ajss
thanks for this explanation, I totally forgot about AR patterns are most likely enzymes deficiencies, this kind of make the question easier if you approach it that way, thanks
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dr.xx
you mean, pure luck? :)
+13
nor16
same here, Glutamine is a NH3 (-amin) donor, so guessing made sense
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ht3
you're definitely not alone lol
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yotsubato
And its not in FA, so fuck it IMO
+1
link981
I guessed it because the names sounded similar :D
+18
yb_26
I also guessed because both words start with "glu")))
+30
impostersyndromel1000
same as person above me. also bc arginine carbamoyl phosphate and nag are all related through urea cycle.
+1
jaxx
Not a clue. This was so random.
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mkreamy
this made me feel a lot better.
also, no fucking clue
+1
amirmullick3
My immediate thought after reading this was "why would i know this and how does this make me a better doctor?"
+10
mrglass
Generally speaking Glutamine is often used to aminate things. Think brain nitrogen metabolism. You know that F-6-P isn't an amine, and that Glucosamine is, so Glutamine isn't an unrealistic guess.
+6
taediggity
I literally shouted wtf in quiet library at this question.
+2
bend_nbme_over
Lol def didn't know it. Looks like I'm not going to be a competent doctor because I don't know the hexosamine pathway lol
+25
drschmoctor
Is it biochemistry? Then I do not know it.
+5
jesusisking
I Ctrl+F'd glucosamine in FA and it's not even there lol
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batmane
i definitely guessed, for some reason got it down to arginine and glutamine
+3
baja_blast
Narrowed it down to Arginine and Glutamine figuring the Nitrogen would have to come from one of these two but of course I picked the wrong one. Classic.
+2
feeeeeever
Ahhh yes the classic Glucosamine from fructose 6-phosphate question....Missed this question harder than the Misoprostol missed swing
+1
schep
no idea. i could only safely eliminate carbamoyl phosphate because that's urea cycle
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flvent2120
Lol I didn't either. I think this is just critical thinking though. The amine has to come from somewhere. Glutamine/glutamate is known to transfer amines at the least
+1
impostersyndromel1000
this is one of those Qs where you just dont over think it and focus on your first point, that they are comparing a group with the disease vs (potentially) one without it.
Thats what i took from it at least
(sorry fi this is too late)
+3
tiagob
Why is not Cohort ? since it compares groups exposed to drug X?
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djinn
Cohort studies determines end of disease and CC determines begins
+3
drdoom
^^^ โdon't overthink itโ is not a viable strategy; it doesn't constitute thinking and i hate when people use it as a replacement to saying, "i have no idea how to think about this problem and so i guessed and got lucky"
+2
Jokes on me, I pay $60 for NBME to tell me granulation tissue exists 18 days after infarct but UWORLD and AMBOSS say 3-14 days after infarct for granulation tissue and 2 weeks to several months for scar formation.