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Welcome to impostersyndromel1000โ€™s page.
Contributor score: 42


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 +3  visit this page (nbme24#20)
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Jokes on me, I pay $60 for NBME to tell me granulation tissue exists 18 days after infarct but UWORLD and AMBOSS say 3-14 days after infarct for granulation tissue and 2 weeks to several months for scar formation.

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 +2  visit this page (nbme22#21)
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For the simple minded, if pH and CO2 are moving in opposite directions its respiratory. Here, pH is low and CO2 is high, so Respiratory Acidosis. Then looked at Bicarb, noticed it was below normal. If normal would have chosen uncompensated but since it decreased I assumed metabolic acidosis. Overall, weird Q bc tachypnea would mean hyperventilation which is respect alkalosis. But signs of weak response muscles or respiratory distress which would be responsible acidosis. Also, LOW pH with plasma Bicarb between ~8-33 means Mixed Acidosis (FA 2019 pg 580) so could also just pick the one with both Acidosis.

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thatmd  thank you!!! +

 +2  visit this page (nbme22#18)
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so its reassurance bc some boys can have mild breast development at 13? I've never heard or seen this before can someone please clarify. Basically reassuring that this is (relatively) normal?

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 +0  visit this page (nbme22#39)
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would anyone be able to clarify what the others would be? A) Allergen mediated vasoconstriction, leading to ischemic tissue injury: Type I B) Binding of antigen to IgE on the surface of mast cells leading to mast cell degranulation: Type I C) deposition of antigen-antibody complexes within postcapillary venules, leading to activation of complement: Not sure D) Phagocytosis of antigen by neutrophils, leading to oxidant mediated tissue damage: Type III?

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sunny  i think C is type III +3
sunny  i think C is type III +1
dentist  In Type III HS, First C happens then then D happens +1




Subcomments ...

submitted by sympathetikey(1600), visit this page
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Pediculus Humanus

Blood-sucking lice that cause intense pruritus with associated excoriations, commonly on scalp and neck (head lice), waistband and axilla (body lice), or pubic and perianal regions (pubic lice).

Best give away in this question, for me, is the "white, globular protuberances". Looks just like the pic in First Aid 2019 (see below).

https://i.imgur.com/mh5JA2D.png

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aaftabsethi1  How the hell did pediculus spread in the class . Who is having head to head contact there ? +
impostersyndromel1000  they probably were assigned group projects where the teacher asked them to put their heads together ;-) +1


submitted by medskool123(31), visit this page
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can someone explain why this is not transduction? Last nbme I said conjugation and got it wrong for transduction.. this one I say transduction and its conjugation.

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pseudorosette  I would say because this happened between two bacteria, but in transduction what causes the acquisition of bacterial resistance is coming from a bacteriophage, which is a virus that infects bacteria, but that is never hinted at the question! +5
medpsychosis  Quick Overview of the involved topics and answer choices that are relevant in this question: Transduction: Involves phage, cleaves DNA and takes a part with it as it is packaged. Generalized is when is happens by accident. Specialized is an excision event. Transformation: bacteria takes up naked DNA around it and incorporates it therefore becoming "transformed" e.g. (SHiN) S. Pneuma, H. Influenza type B, and Neisseria. Transposition: Jumping from one location to another within same bacterial organism (e.g. from chromosome to plasmid) Conjugation: Above mentioned plasmid gets transferred from conjugal bridge from one bacteria to another. +21
wowo  FA2019 p130 +1
zbird  Easy here...first both are G-ves which likely have a sex pilus and if cultured together as in this case transfer their plasmid. Transduction need phage. Transposition is exchange of genetic material inside the bacteria b/n the dna and the plasmid or vv (FA2019) +
impostersyndromel1000  how much time do you really save by saying G-ves instead of gram negs or negatives +
unknown001  can someone explain why it isnt transposition. reason why it isnt transformation is there is nothing in the broth that will cleave the bacteria, to have naked dna that can be picked up +


submitted by wired-in(81), visit this page
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Maintenance dose formula is (Css ร— Cl ร— tau) รท F

where Css is steady-state target plasma conc. of drug, Cl is clearance, tau is dosage interval & F is bioavailability.

Neither dosage interval nor bioavailability is given, so ignoring those & plugging in the numbers (careful to convert units to mg/kg/day):

=(12 ug/mL ร— 1 mg/1000 ug) ร— (0.09 L/hr/kg ร— 1000 mL/1 L ร— 24 hr/1 day)
= 25.92 mg/kg/day

...which isn't any of the answer choices listed. They must have rounded 0.09 L/hr/kg to 0.1 L/hr/kg, and doing so gives exactly 28.8 mg/kg/day (choice C)

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lispectedwumbologist  That's so infuriating I stared at this question for 20 minutes thinking I did something wrong +85
hyoid  ^^^^^ +13
seagull  lol..my math never worked either. I also just chose the closest number. also, screw this question author for doing that. +10
praderwilli  Big mad +10
ht3  this is why you never waste 7 minutes on a question.... because of shit like this +9
yotsubato  Why the FUCK did they not just give us a clearance of 0.1 if they're going to fuckin round it anyways... +21
bigjimbo  JOKES +1
cr  in ur maths, why did u put 24h/1day and not 1day/24h? if the given Cl was 0.09L/hr/kg. I know it just is a math question, but iยดd appreciate if someone could explain it. +1
d_holles  LMAO games NBME plays +3
hyperfukus  magic math!!!!! how TF r we supposed to know when they round and when they don't like wtf im so pissed someone please tell me step isn't like this...with such precise decimal answers and a calculator fxn you would assume they wanted an actual answer! +1
jean_young2019  OMG, I've got the 25.92 mg/kg/day, which isn't any of the answer choices listed. So I chose the D 51.8, because 51.8 is double of 25.9......I thought I must have make a mistake during the calculation ...... +7
atbangura  They purposely did that so if you made a mistake with your conversion like I did, you might end up with 2.5 which was one of the answer choices. SMH +7
titanesxvi  I did well, but I thought that my mistake was something to do with the conversion and end up choosing 2.5 because it is similar to 25.92 +4
makinallkindzofgainz  The fact that we pay these people 60 dollars a pop for poorly formatted and written exams boggles my mind, and yet here I am, about to buy Form 24 +23
qball  Me after plugging in the right numbers and not rounding down : https://i.kym-cdn.com/entries/icons/original/000/028/539/DyqSKoaX4AATc2G.jpg +1
frustratedllama  Not only do you feel like you're doing sth wrong but then that feeling stays for other questions. sucks so baad +1
fexx  'here.. take 50mg of vyvanse.. I just rounded it up from 30.. dw you'll be fine' (totally doing this with my patients 8-)) +1
cbreland  I was so close to picking 2.5 because I thought I did a conversion error. 5 minutes later and still didn't feel comfortable picking 28.8๐Ÿ˜ก +
yesa  12ug/ml = 12mg/L; 12mg/L x .1L/hr/kg x 24hr/day = 28.8. No need to multiple numerators and denominators by 1000s +
chaosawaits  What really grinds my gears is that 3/5 answer choices are closely related to using 0.09 instead of 0.1 (A is 25.92/10, D is 25.92*2, and B is D/10). So basically, we're supposed to know to round 0.09 up to 0.1 but also to not round 12 down to 10. Okay? +
impostersyndromel1000  so you're telling me that I did all my math correctly, got 25.92 then thought I was off by a decimal point and chose 2.5 bc 25.9 wasn't an option and I was actually correct in my math but wrong bc THEY DIDNT PUT THE RIGHT ANSWER? Why is NBME so trash? I hope real exam isnt this bad. +1


submitted by dentist(94), visit this page
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Pott's Fracture: forced eversion of the footโž deltoid ligt avulses medial malleolus โž fibular fracture higher than tib fx

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impostersyndromel1000  as an aspiring MSK radiologist im really upset I missed this. Thanks for explanation. +


submitted by gunnersinchrome(6), visit this page
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Easiest way to think of this is that this is Gatorade. Sure everyone thinks that sports drinks have glucose for the energy (which is also true) but they also contain sugar because the Na/Glucose co-transporter in the small intestine helps drive electrolyte intake. Without glucose, you donโ€™t pull in sodium nearly as efficiently in the gut and the first makers of the Gatorade formula at UF found that once they gave glucose and electrolytes instead of just water to the football team during practice, they didnโ€™t get as dehydrated and their electrolyte balance was a lot more stable.

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usmleboy  Gaaaaaatttoooraaddeeee! Water sucks! It really really sucks! +3
mumenrider4ever  You're drinking the wrong water https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=7I2-14y6-jM +1
rockodude  go gators, we made that shit +
username  go dawgs +
skonys  Any hydrohomies? My patient's will be getting straight RO water to the neck. None of that heretical devil-drink. +
chaosawaits  @rockodude, if only FSU had made it; we'd all be drinking Seminole Fluid ;) +1
impostersyndromel1000  @chaosawaits underrated comment +


submitted by sup(31), visit this page
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Somehow I was able to convince myself that increased testosterone --> decreased estrogen --> decreased negative feedback on LH/FSH secretion --> increased FSH. Does anyone care to explain why this logic is wrong? Thanks :)

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btl_nyc  The increased testosterone is metabolized by granulosa cells to estrogen and by adipose tissue into estrone. Both feed back on the hypothalamus to inhibit FSH & LH secretion, but FSH is much more sensitive to feedback inhibition than LH, causing an increased LH/FSH ratio. +1
impostersyndromel1000  @sup, i did the same thing. Had no idea testosterone and androgens can increase epo +


submitted by seagull(1933), visit this page
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So alpha was the answer so my fatigued mind put "A"...well done. You're going to be a doctor. lol

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impostersyndromel1000  hope you dont have to write a prescription for me one day lol +4
l0ud_minority  https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=JwaeWXhklio The link does a great job at explaining this. And if this was a female then I believe H would be the answer b/c of no Internal Sphincter in women. +


submitted by cocoxaurus(59), visit this page
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Almost got tricked by this one because osteosarcoma also causes osteoblastic lesion. Osteosarcoma most commonly metastasizes to lungs though.

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impostersyndromel1000  This was in pathoma, he said prostate cancer causes osteoblastic lesions and "the board examiners really want you to know that". also following the potential site of mets helps choose the answer +2
snripper  Also, osteosarcoma is less common in the elderly, more common in males <20 y/o (per F.A 2020) +2
homersimpson  Osteosarcoma causes lytic bone lesions @cocoxarus +
chaosawaits  I definitely overthought this one to death. I had prostate adenocarcinoma, but then reread it to make sure I wasn't missing anything. The normal referenced labs made me reconsider. So I chose osteosarcoma. If anyone could explain the normal labs (no elevated ALP), I'd appreciate it. +1


submitted by drdoom(1206), visit this page
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You have to think about this using the concept of CONDITIONAL PROBABILITY. Another way to ask this type of question is like this: โ€œI show you a patient with spontaneous pneumothorax. Which other thing is most likely to be true about that person?โ€ Or you can phrase it these ways:

  • Given a CONDITION (spontaneous pneumo), what other finding is most likely to be the case?
  • Given a pool of people with spontaneous pneumothorax, what other thing is most likely to be true about them?

In other words, of all people who end up with spontaneous pneumo, the most common other thing about them is that they are MALE & THIN.

If I gave you a bucket of spontaneous pneumo patients -- and you reached your hand in there and pulled one out -- what scenario would be more common: In your hand you have a smoker or in your hand you have a thin male? Itโ€™s the latter.

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someduck3  Is this the best approach to all of the "strongest predisposing risk factor" type questions? +
drdoom  There is a town of 1,000 men. Nine hundred of them work as lawyers. The other 100 are engineers. Tom is from this town. He rides his bike to work. In his free time, he likes solving math puzzles. He built his own computer. What is Tom's occupation most likely to be? Answer: Tom is most likely to be a lawyer! Don't let assumptions distract you from the overwhelming force of sheer probability! "Given that Tom is from this town, his most likely occupation (from the available data) = lawyer." +4
drdoom  There is a town of 1,000 spontaneous pneumo patients. Six hundred are tall, thin and male. The other 400 are something else. Two hundred of the 1,000 smoke cigarettes. The other 800 do not. What risk factor is most strongly associated with spontaneous pneumo? (Answer: Not being a smoker! ... because out of 1,000 people, the most common trait is NOT smoking [800 members].) +5
impostersyndromel1000  this is WILD! thanks guy +3
belleng  beautiful! also, i think about odds ratio vs. relative risk...odds ratio is retrospective of case-control studies to find risk factor or exposure that correlates with grater ratio of disease. relative risk is an estimation of incidence in the future when looking at different cohort studies. +
drdoom  @impostersyndrome I love me some probability and statistics. Glad my rant was useful :P +
hyperfukus  @drdoom i hate it which is why your rant was extremely useful lol i learned a ton thanks dr.doom! +1
dubywow  I caught he was thin. The only reason I didn't pick Gender and body habitus is because he was not overly tall (5'10"). I talked myself out of it because I thought the body habitus was too "normal" because he was not both thin AND tall. Got to keep telling myself to not think too hard on these. Thanks for the explanation. +1
taediggity  It isn't just that this person has Ehlers Danlos and they're more prone to spontaneous pneumo??? +2


submitted by gh889(154), visit this page
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The answer is due to an exception outlined here where niacin is used in pts w/o diabetes who have refractory hypertriglyceridemia at high risk or has a hx of pancreatitis.

I agree that fibrates are first line (and so does that article) but NBME was honing in on a specific exception that niacin can also be used since VLDL and TGs are high in hypertriglyceridemia.

The "clue" they had was "recurrent pancreatitis" which is supposedly a lead towards niacin.

I also put increase HDL....

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wutuwantbruv  Correct, you would not want to give fibrates to someone with recurrent pancreatitis since fibrates increase the risk of cholesterol gallstones due to inhibition of cholesterol 7ฮฑ-hydroxylase. +2
kernicterusthefrog  FYI @gh889 can't follow your link w/o an NYIT username and password, unless there's a more tech-savvy way around that.. I appreciate the info, though. Niacin rx for familial hypertriglyceridemia w/ recurrent pancreatitis. Now I know.. +4
impostersyndromel1000  Great points, very in depth knowledge taking place here. Also, familial hypertriglyceridemia (per FA 2019 pg 94) has hepatic overproduction of VLDL so picking this would have been the easiest answer (in retrospect) +4
hyperfukus  @impostersyndrome1000 literally that's the ONE thing i remembered and i went YOLO lol cuz i was staring for a while +2
osler_weber_rendu  @gh889 I agree niacin is the answer, but even niacin causes increase in HDL. As if getting to the drug wasnt tough enough, NBME puts two of its actions in the options! What a shit question +3
mtkilimanjaro  I forget where I saw (maybe UWorld), but I always thought increasing HDL is never really a primary form of lipid control. You want to lower the bad cholesterol etc. since increasing good cholesterol wont change LDL VLDL etc. +2
jaramaiha  @mtkilimanjaro I believe it was in BnB. Dr.Ryan mentioned that there hasn't been enough evidence that raising HDL would be beneficial as far as lipid control goes. Better studies were done on statins hence why they are usually first line Tx. +


submitted by d_holles(218), visit this page
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Goljan stresses the Boards giving the leukemia questions away based on the age given in the question stems.

ALL = 0-14

AML = 15-39; 40-59

CLL = 60+

CML = 40-59

https://forums.studentdoctor.net/threads/goljan-on-leukemias.303605/

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impostersyndromel1000  thanks for the reminder, often overlooked are the simple demographic hints. helps you make an educated guess +2
hyperfukus  also a key thing to remember in general is a person who undergoes chemo is a big demographic hint to later developing AML regardless of the clues :) and yes the AGE!!! +4


submitted by atstillisafraud(217), visit this page
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Alkylating agents (merchlorethamine) (the other drugs listed are microtubule inhibitors) increase the risk of AML.

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keycompany  Additionally, AML is the only answer choice that has multiple blast forms (myeloblasts, promyelocytes, etc.). ALL is characterized by a single blast form (lymphoblasts). +31
seagull  CML has blasts too but they tend to favor mature forms. +5
kash1f  You see numerous blast forms == AML, which is characterized by >20% blasts +11
keycompany  The answer choices are all of lymphoid origin except for AML and Hodgkin Disease. We know Hodgkin Disease is a lymphoma (not leukemia) and would present with lymphadenoapthy. So the answer must be AML #testtakingstrategies +13
impostersyndromel1000  @atstillisafraud thanks for mentioning the merchlorethamine increasing risk for AML, i was trying to make a connection with the drugs but couldnt. Had to lean on the test taking skills just like key company +2
sweetmed  Procarbazine is alkylating as well. +1
pg32  @keycompany how did you know the phrase "multiple blast forms" meant literally different types of blasts and not just many blast cells were seen? +4
castlblack  this link says CLL has 'large lymphocytic variety' under the picture of the peripheral smear. I am not arguing against you, just researching here https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/199313-workup +1
jurrutia  @keycompany, how did you know it had to be of myeloid origin? +1


submitted by keycompany(351), visit this page
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Hyperventilation decrease PaCO2. Central chemoreceptors respond to low PaCO2 by vasoconstricting cerebral blood vessels.

A) Arterial Blood Oxygen Concentration: Blood Oxygen Concentration is directly related to Hb concentration and saturation (SaO2) FA2019, p. 653. Via the Bohr Effect, decreased PaCO2 will increase SaO2, thus increasing blood oxygen concentration.

B) Arterial Blood PO2: PaO2 changes in response to decreased PAO2, PIO2, or diffusion. There would be no change in PaO2 during hyperventilation (theoretically).

C) Aterial Pressure: Decreased PaCO2 is associated with vasoconstriction, which would increase blood pressure.

E) Cerebral Tissue pH would increase due to respiratory alkalosis.

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keycompany  EDIT: Via the **Haldane Effect**, not the Bohr Effect. +1
impostersyndromel1000  excellent response +1
teepot123  fa 19 pg 489 +2


submitted by nwinkelmann(366), visit this page
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I've never been good at converting units :( lol so had to ask my brother. He told me that:

distance ร— distance = distance2 = area

and,

distance ร— distance ร— distance = distance2 ร— distance = distance3 = volume

Gotta love public school for never been taught that ... geesh (obviously I've done the equations and stuff, just never been told it that way/that simple before). Knowing that makes figuring out the equation much easier:

Flow rate = velocity ร— CSA = 20 cm/sec ร— 2cm2 = 40cm3/sec

To convert to L/min, just multiply:

40cm3/sec ร— 60 sec/min ร— 1L/1,000cm3 = 2400 L/1,000 min = 2.4 L/min

Hope this helped!

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impostersyndromel1000  to all my public school peeps out there (and not the nice public schools in rich areas, the real public schools)... we made it! +4
angelaq11  Thankfully I was taught how to convert units, but let me tell you that I was SO lost on this one. It's USELESS to know how to do it if you (I, I mean I) don't know the damn formula xD. Obviously got this one wrong, but it's good to know that if it ever comes up again (and I know it won't) I already know it. +2


submitted by endochondral1(24), visit this page
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is this question asking what we physically pass through or by?

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impostersyndromel1000  no, basically the question is testing if you know the branches of the abdominal aorta and which is closest to the renal (in this case, inferior to the renal arteries) +2
impostersyndromel1000  what you are passing by would better answer your question actually +2


submitted by endochondral1(24), visit this page
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is this question asking what we physically pass through or by?

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impostersyndromel1000  no, basically the question is testing if you know the branches of the abdominal aorta and which is closest to the renal (in this case, inferior to the renal arteries) +2
impostersyndromel1000  what you are passing by would better answer your question actually +2


submitted by link981(208), visit this page
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Per First Aid 2018 (pg 421) & Merck Manual

a) CML is not the answer because in CML you have HIGH WBCs & Platelets. In the stem there is only high platelets. b) Is the answer because in Essential Thrombocythemia we have normal WBCs and RBCs, just high platelets. c) Myeloid metaplasia refers to well a metaplasia in myeloid cells which are basophils, eosinophils, etc. d) In Polycythemia Vera we have HIGH RBCs, WBCs, and Platelets. e) Reactive thrombocytosis- is a elevated platelet count that occurs secondary to another disorder like:

-Chronic inflammatory disorders (eg, rheumatoid arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease, tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, granulomatosis with polyangiitis) -Acute infection

-Hemorrhage

-Iron deficiency

-Hemolysis

-Cancer

-Splenectomy or hyposplenism

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impostersyndromel1000  perfect response right here +
paloma  Essential thrombocythemia presents with platelets > 1 million, not reactive thrombocytosis +2


submitted by mcl(671), visit this page
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Beta-2 receptors are coupled to Gs proteins, which activate adenylyl cyclase and increase cAMP. Cyclic AMP then increases activity of protein kinase A, which phosphorylates myosin light chain kinase, ultimately resulting in smooth muscle relaxation. Albuterol, a B2 agonist, is therefore useful in treating bronchospasm.

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impostersyndromel1000  are you able to clarify that phosphorylated myosin light chain kinase from cAMP/PKA and dephosphorylated myosin light chain from cGMP both cause smooth muscle relaxation? saw this on another Q with the nitrates causing headache so now im confused +
dubywow  @impostersyndromel1000: Here is an image that summarizes cAMP and cGMP actions in smooth muscle cell very will. Hope it helps. link +3
iwannabeadoctor2  cGMP is the use of Nitrates for endothelial vasodilation; B2 is a different action, similar end result. See this diagram for the adrenergic receptor actions. https://s3.amazonaws.com/classconnection/769/flashcards/5928769/png/screen_shot_2014-11-04_at_92935_am-1497B7358A4552ACB39.png +
castlblack  cAMP INHIBITS myosin light chain kinase causing relaxation according to FA 2020 pg. 317 +3


submitted by bubbles(79), visit this page
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Can someone explain properly how we know that this trait follows Mendelian genetics and is autosomal recessive and furthermore how the parents were heterozygous?

I guessed a lot on this question and got lucky :(

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niboonsh  Autosomal Dominant disorders usually present as defects in structural genes, where as Autosomal Recessive disorders usually present as enzyme deficiencies. P450 is an enzyme, so we are probably dealing with an autosomal recessive disorder. furthermore, the question states there was a "homozygous presence of p450.....". In autosomal recessive problemos, parents are usually heterozygous, meaning that 1/4 of their kiddos will be affected (aka homozygous), 1/2 of the kids will be carriers, and 1/4 of their kids will be unaffected. +38
nwinkelmann  Is this how we should attack this probelm?: First clue stating endoxifen is active metabolite of Tamoxifen should make us recognize this undering first pass hepatic CYP450 metabolism? Once we know that, the fact that the metabolite is decrease suggests an enzyme defect, which is supported by patient's homozygous enzyme alleles. Then use the general rule that enzyme defects are AR whereas structural protein defects are AD inheritance patters. Once we know the pattern, think that most common transmission of AR comes from two carrier parents. So offspring alleles = 25% homozygous normal, 50% heterozygous carrier, and 25% homozygous affected, thus sister has a 25% of having the same alleles as patient (i.e. homozygous CYP450 2D6*4)? +6
impostersyndromel1000  we had the exact same thought process, so i too am hoping this is the correct way to approach it get reasoning friend +
ajss  thanks for this explanation, I totally forgot about AR patterns are most likely enzymes deficiencies, this kind of make the question easier if you approach it that way, thanks +


submitted by meningitis(644), visit this page
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Process of elimination on this one.

  • I eliminated Carbomyl phosphate, Arginine due to urea cycle.
  • I eliminated ATP because ATP alone wouldn't change F6P into glucosamine
  • NAG I got lucky and I eliminated it due to its use in ECM and collagen so I didn't think it was relevant and I kind of remembered it being in urea cycle.
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dr.xx  you mean, pure luck? :) +13
impostersyndromel1000  lol pretty sound logic here mate +3
nor16  same here, Glutamine is a NH3 (-amin) donor, so guessing made sense +


submitted by seagull(1933), visit this page
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out of curiosity, how may people knew this? (dont be shy to say you did or didnt?)

My poverty education didn't ingrain this in me.

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johnthurtjr  I did not +3
nlkrueger  i did not lol +
ht3  you're definitely not alone lol +
yotsubato  no idea +
yotsubato  And its not in FA, so fuck it IMO +1
niboonsh  i didnt +
imnotarobotbut  Nope +
epr94  did not +
link981  I guessed it because the names sounded similar :D +18
d_holles  i did not +
yb_26  I also guessed because both words start with "glu"))) +30
impostersyndromel1000  same as person above me. also bc arginine carbamoyl phosphate and nag are all related through urea cycle. +1
jaxx  Not a clue. This was so random. +
ls3076  no way +
hyperfukus  no clue +
mkreamy  this made me feel a lot better. also, no fucking clue +1
amirmullick3  My immediate thought after reading this was "why would i know this and how does this make me a better doctor?" +10
mrglass  Generally speaking Glutamine is often used to aminate things. Think brain nitrogen metabolism. You know that F-6-P isn't an amine, and that Glucosamine is, so Glutamine isn't an unrealistic guess. +6
djtallahassee  yea, I mature 30k anki cards to see this bs +6
taediggity  I literally shouted wtf in quiet library at this question. +2
bend_nbme_over  Lol def didn't know it. Looks like I'm not going to be a competent doctor because I don't know the hexosamine pathway lol +25
drschmoctor  Is it biochemistry? Then I do not know it. +5
snoochi95  hell no brother +1
roro17  I didnโ€™t +
bodanese  I did not +
hatethisshit  nope +
jesusisking  I Ctrl+F'd glucosamine in FA and it's not even there lol +
batmane  i definitely guessed, for some reason got it down to arginine and glutamine +3
waterloo  Nope. +
monique  I did not +
issamd1221  didnt +
baja_blast  Narrowed it down to Arginine and Glutamine figuring the Nitrogen would have to come from one of these two but of course I picked the wrong one. Classic. +2
amy  +1 no idea! +
mumenrider4ever  Had no idea what glucosamine was +
feeeeeever  Ahhh yes the classic Glucosamine from fructose 6-phosphate question....Missed this question harder than the Misoprostol missed swing +1
surfacegomd  no clue +
schep  no idea. i could only safely eliminate carbamoyl phosphate because that's urea cycle +
chediakhigashi  nurp +
kidokick  just adding in to say, nope. +
flvent2120  Lol I didn't either. I think this is just critical thinking though. The amine has to come from somewhere. Glutamine/glutamate is known to transfer amines at the least +1
l0ud_minority  No fucking clue I guessed wrong:( +


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So...case-control studies compare a group of people with the disease and a group of people without the disease. I'm not sure I understand why you can call people randomly and call that a control group. What if among those called randomly, some of them have also had hemorrhagic strokes?

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impostersyndromel1000  this is one of those Qs where you just dont over think it and focus on your first point, that they are comparing a group with the disease vs (potentially) one without it. Thats what i took from it at least (sorry fi this is too late) +3
tiagob  Why is not Cohort ? since it compares groups exposed to drug X? +
djinn  Cohort studies determines end of disease and CC determines begins +3
drdoom  ^^^ โ€œdon't overthink itโ€ is not a viable strategy; it doesn't constitute thinking and i hate when people use it as a replacement to saying, "i have no idea how to think about this problem and so i guessed and got lucky" +2


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