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 +0  (nbme22#1)

Decompensated HF. Lack of blood flow due to failing heart -> lower BP -> increased ADH to increase blood pressure back to stable level. In DHF, ADH outpaces homeostasis of counteracting ANP & BNP. Thus, the term "decompensated". Associated with shortness of breath, edema (often of lungs).

This vicious cycle continues as body prioritizes adequate BP for survival, but it comes at the expense of overworked heart that must work harder and harder, ultimately exacerbating the heart failure condition.

Subcomments ...

submitted by lilyo(33),

I had the same question regarding this. I know that external hemorrhoids rarely bleed and internal hemorrhoids present as painless bleeding so in my mind I knew I was being asked about internal hemorrhoids. However, superior rectal--> inferior mesenteric vein--> portal vein, can anyone tell me why the answer was superior rectal and not inferior mesenteric?

dubywow  Because the wording sucks. It's a confusing way to word the question. I too was confused what direct tributaries was referring to and chose Inferior mesenteric because I suck and also because this question sucks. Really its asking where are the hemorrhoids? They are on/from the superior rectals even though those veins feed to Inferior mesenteric. +3  
drdoom  Defining tributary: https://i.imgur.com/2zDxPbW.png Nice images make the term easier to recall. Smaller streams "pay tribute" to larger rivers (by flowing into them). +3  

submitted by drdoom(467),

You have to think about this using the concept of CONDITIONAL PROBABILITY. Another way to ask this type of question is like this: “I show you a patient with spontaneous pneumothorax. Which other thing is most likely to be true about that person?” Or you can phrase it these ways:

  • Given a CONDITION (spontaneous pneumo), what other finding is most likely to be the case?
  • Given a pool of people with spontaneous pneumothorax, what other thing is most likely to be true about them?

In other words, of all people who end up with spontaneous pneumo, the most common other thing about them is that they are MALE & THIN.

If I gave you a bucket of spontaneous pneumo patients -- and you reached your hand in there and pulled one out -- what scenario would be more common: In your hand you have a smoker or in your hand you have a thin male? It’s the latter.

someduck3  Is this the best approach to all of the "strongest predisposing risk factor" type questions? +  
drdoom  There is a town of 1,000 men. Nine hundred of them work as lawyers. The other 100 are engineers. Tom is from this town. He rides his bike to work. In his free time, he likes solving math puzzles. He built his own computer. What is Tom's occupation most likely to be? Answer: Tom is most likely to be a lawyer! Don't let assumptions distract you from the overwhelming force of sheer probability! "Given that Tom is from this town, his most likely occupation (from the available data) = lawyer." +4  
drdoom  There is a town of 1,000 spontaneous pneumo patients. Six hundred are tall, thin and male. The other 400 are something else. Two hundred of the 1,000 smoke cigarettes. The other 800 do not. What risk factor is most strongly associated with spontaneous pneumo? (Answer: Not being a smoker! ... because out of 1,000 people, the most common trait is NOT smoking [800 members].) +4  
impostersyndromel1000  this is WILD! thanks guy +3  
belleng  beautiful! also, i think about odds ratio vs. relative risk...odds ratio is retrospective of case-control studies to find risk factor or exposure that correlates with grater ratio of disease. relative risk is an estimation of incidence in the future when looking at different cohort studies. +  
drdoom  @impostersyndrome I love me some probability and statistics. Glad my rant was useful :P +  
hyperfukus  @drdoom i hate it which is why your rant was extremely useful lol i learned a ton thanks dr.doom! +1  
dubywow  I caught he was thin. The only reason I didn't pick Gender and body habitus is because he was not overly tall (5'10"). I talked myself out of it because I thought the body habitus was too "normal" because he was not both thin AND tall. Got to keep telling myself to not think too hard on these. Thanks for the explanation. +1  
taediggity  It isn't just that this person has Ehlers Danlos and they're more prone to spontaneous pneumo??? +1  

submitted by seagull(839),

The authors went out of their way to find thew worst photo of a granuloma they could. The threw on a stem that suggests that it would be granulation tisue. But little did we know...

amorah  I was between granulation tissue and granuloma. Then ruled out granulation tissue because this is a 10 week old wound. Assuming normal wound healing, granulation tissue would be replaced by type III collagen/resolution by 10 weeks. +9  
sbryant6  Got this right because the exact same question is in Uworld. +  
dubywow  Got baited... took my eye off the ball (and onto that worst photo ever) and missed the Ten week part. Granulation for the "L". +1  
groovygrinch  Anytime they go out of their way to mention sutures, my mind goes right to granulomas +  
beto  there are multinucleated cells(minimum 4). this helped me to choose granuloma over granulation tissue +2  

submitted by sunny(-1),

WHY NOT YES,and then share the money with the patieny so he doesn't doubt your motives.

ergogenic22  because then it is as if you are paying the patient to enroll in the experimental treatment +  
ergogenic22  because then it is as if you are paying the patient to enroll in the experimental treatment, which I don't know why that would be wrong +  
dubywow  Bribery is only good for doctors. Can't bribe patients. That's illegal. Kind of like how NCAA gets paid a lot, but student athletes get nadda. Still the TLDR is it always ethical to disclose financial incentives when they relate to anything that may affect your decision on how to treat a patient. +  

submitted by mcl(453),

Beta-2 receptors are coupled to Gs proteins, which activate adenylyl cyclase and increase cAMP. Cyclic AMP then increases activity of protein kinase A, which phosphorylates myosin light chain kinase, ultimately resulting in smooth muscle relaxation. Albuterol, a B2 agonist, is therefore useful in treating bronchospasm.

impostersyndromel1000  are you able to clarify that phosphorylated myosin light chain kinase from cAMP/PKA and dephosphorylated myosin light chain from cGMP both cause smooth muscle relaxation? saw this on another Q with the nitrates causing headache so now im confused +  
dubywow  @impostersyndromel1000: Here is an image that summarizes cAMP and cGMP actions in smooth muscle cell very will. Hope it helps. link +  
iwannabeadoctor2  cGMP is the use of Nitrates for endothelial vasodilation; B2 is a different action, similar end result. See this diagram for the adrenergic receptor actions. https://s3.amazonaws.com/classconnection/769/flashcards/5928769/png/screen_shot_2014-11-04_at_92935_am-1497B7358A4552ACB39.png +  
castlblack  cAMP INHIBITS myosin light chain kinase causing relaxation according to FA 2020 pg. 317 +  

submitted by hopsalong(20),

This question has a lot of answer options, and you arrive at Nephrolithiasis by throwing out all the other options by what is missing.

A, B - Cortical Necrosis and Papillary Necrosis almost always occur in the setting of ischemia. Previously healthy 28 year old man has no evidence of significantly decreased renal perfusion.

C - Acute Tubular Necrosis is what you should think of with Salicylate (NSAID) toxicity. There are many other nephrotoxic drugs that cause ATN, but think of ATN as drug induced kidney damage.

D - Cystitis - Flank pain is related to kidney injury, not bladder damage. Cystitis could be possible in ascending UTI, but the patient has no fever and is male (much less common in males).

E - Glomerulonephritis - This gets into nephrotic/nephritic syndromes. The stem mentions that he has blood in the urine which may lead you down the nephritic pathway, but he does not have any of the other associated symptoms.

F - Hypernephroma - Another word for Renal Cell Carcinoma. No weight loss or other cancer related symptoms (fatigue etc.)

G - Interstitial Nephritis - This is often a drug induced IMMUNE mediated nephrotoxicity. This is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction that occurs weeks to months after the start of medication (like NSAIDs). ATN is more associated with drug overdose while Interstitial is more associated with immune reaction. Intersitial Nephritis will have WBC casts in urine.

I - Pyelonephritis - Caused by ascending UTI but no fever is present.

This leaves Nephrolithiasis (H) as the correct answer. 85% of Nephrolithiasis is associated with hypoactive bowel sounds. The pain for nephrolithiasis can relapse and remit, and occasionally the pain can travel from the kidney (flank pain) to the scrotum as the stone moves through the ureter.

whoissaad  Great explanation. Always found it hard to differentiate between ATN and AIN due to NSAID use. This made it clear. Thanks! +2  
hyperfukus  yasss +  
dubywow  "occasionally writhes in pain" -- as a guy who has had a kidney stone, writhing in pain definitely hits the mark. Picture yourself knees on the ground, face on the couch, screaming incoherently while the paramedics are there because you can't control your own body movement and don't know if you're dying or whatnot from the canonball sized hole that (may or may not be) in your flank. Then imagine one of the paramedics is your premed study buddy. Never forget writhing and nephrolithiasis and premed study buddies. You will forever get this question correct in the future. +2  
bharatpillai  i swear to god ive done a similar question on the usmlerx qb and they answer was renal papillary necrosis. which is why i got it wrong :( +  
targetmle  i also remember that uw ques which got me this ques wrong. i think in that ques,patient sibling or he himself had sickle cell +  

submitted by keycompany(214),

Nitrogen balance is a measurement of protein metabolism in the body. A negative nitrogen balance indicates muscle loss, as increased amounts of amino acids are being metabolized to produce energy. This increases the amount of nitrogen secreted from the body. Because the amount of nitrogen you are taking in is less than the amount of nitrogen you are secreting, you have a negative nitrogen balance.

This man is malnourished, edematous, cachetic, and has hypoalbuminemia. These clinical findings point to protein malnutrition (Kawashkior Disease), which causes edema due to decreased serum oncotic pressure. Low oncotic pressure in this case is due to protein loss, and hence a negative nitrogen balance.

drdoom  Nice! +2  
dubywow  I knew your last sentence and suspected Kwashiorkor. It's just everything else I did not know. I have not heard or thought of muscle/protein changes in terms of "nitrogen balance" before... and that's why I got this wrong. Nice explanation! +2  
macrohphage95  I agree with you in first part but i dont think it has any relation to kwashirkor. It is simply due to cachexia which causes muscle destruction through the proteasome pathway .. +2  

submitted by sbryant6(91),

Craniopharyngioma with Calcifications and Cholesterol Crystals (motor-oil fluid). Remnant of Rathke's pouch. Not to be confused with pituitary adenoma.

dubywow  Also, craniopharyngioma is most common supratentorial childhood tumor. That was the big clue for me. +  

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