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 +0  (nbme24#48)

I got this wrong b/c didn't read where it said "[pain localized] to the distal portion of the absent extremity." That's the giveaway :D





Subcomments ...

submitted by keycompany(214),

This patient has a pneumothorax. Hyperventillation is not enough to compensate for the overall decrease in lung surface area.

_yeetmasterflex  Could the pneumothorax also cause less ventilation due to decreased lung surface, retaining more CO2 causing respiratory acidosis? That's how I got to the answer at least. +3  
duat98  I think pneumothorax would increase RR because you're probably hypoxic. Also I'm sure when you have a lung collapse on you you'd be scared and that would trigger your sympathetic so your RR will go up either way. +3  
kateinwonderland  Arterial blood gas studies may show respiratory alkalosis caused by a decrease in CO2 as a result of tachypnea but later hypoxemia, hypercapnia, and acidosis. The patient's SaO2 levels may decrease at first, but typically return to normal within 24 hours. (https://journals.lww.com/nursing/Fulltext/2002/11000/Understanding_pneumothorax.52.aspx) +1  
linwanrun1357  How about choice C, --ARDS? +  
bullshitusmle  there is no bilateral lung opacities as you would see in ARDS +3  
jesusisking  Was thinking some sort of infection b/c of the atelectasis so picked empyema but this makes sense! +  


yb_26  @at0xibolic, I think you won this competition on finding better picture lol thanks +4  
drschmoctor  Those may be better, but this is the BEST. http://bitly.com/98K8eH +3  
brotherimodu  god damnit +  
jesusisking  Not again (´∀`) +  


Endothelial tight junctions’ permeability is increased in response to injury and inflammation, allowing migration of white blood cells and friends to the site of injury.

jesusisking  Thank you! +  
focus  Ugh I was thrown off by "disruption of vascular basement membranes" since it seemed similar to the correct answer but I can see how "separation" would be a normal, expected response of the body that is needed vs. "disruption" would be traumatic and abnormal... please correct me if I am wrong! +  


submitted by kentuckyfan(38),

Notice that A) Bronchoconstriction, B) Glandular secretion, D) Peristalsis, E) Vasodilation of skin are all under parasympathetic control.

The only sympathetic control is heart rate, which would increase.

drzed  Vasodilation of the skin is under sympathetic control as well -- beta-2 receptors when stimulated cause vasodilation (via increase of cAMP in vascular smooth muscle). The key is recognizing that stimulation of a GANGLION of the pns will lead to release of NOREPINEPHRINE, which preferentially stimulates alpha-1 receptors. Those receptors will cause vasoconstriction. If the question asked what happens when you stimulate the adrenal medulla, the answer would be (potentially) vasodilation. This is because the adrenal medulla releases EPINEPHRINE which preferentially stimulates beta-1/2 receptors. +2  
jesusisking  @drzed Awesome explanation except I think sympathetic response induces vasoconstriction in the skin though vasodilation in the muscles! +  


submitted by sajaqua1(389),

A standard deviation is a measure of probability in resembling the average. One standard deviation on a bell curve distribution creates a 67% chance that the answer will lie in there. Two standard deviations will create a 95% chance. Three standard deviations creates a 99.7% chance.

This patient has an average of 113, and a 95% confidence at 110-116 means that the SD is 1.5 . So one additional SD would give us a range of 108.5-117.5, rounded to 108-118.

usmleuser007  How did you get the SD to be 1.5? +  
usmleuser007  NVM Got it +  
jesusisking  You wouldn't use Standard error with Confidence Interval? (pg. 262 FA 2019) +  


submitted by haozhier(3),

I chose C because I thought it has been four weeks so it must have been acute tubular necrosis. Can anyone explain? Thanks!

miriamp3  @haozhier if you are deciding to think that he had a ATN because of the 4 weeks.. then he should be by now in the recovery phase(polyuria, Bun/cr fall) But he is with HF and his urine output has progressively decrease. So AKI prerenal HF Bun/cr >20. the only one is D. Don't get confused with the rest of the information. +  
jesusisking  I thought the same thing so chose C as well! +  


submitted by link981(105),

However weird, you have to respect the patient's beliefs as long as they aren't putting the newborn at harm. In these types of questions you have to build patient-physician relationships because the patient might become offended if you disregard their beliefs. So while the newborn most likely has gas and not "the evil eye", choice E is the least "offending" answer that suggests treatment.

charcot_bouchard  Exactly. If she was cracking the egg on Baby's head u stop her lol (i am cracking up on my own jokes) +1  
jesusisking  I feel it but dang, she lowkey drizzlin salmonella all over that baby +1  


submitted by seagull(840),

What a terrible picture. They they covered up part of it with lines. WTF

sympathetikey  Agreed. +1  
catch-22  Start at the pontomedullary junction and count from superior to inferiorly (or medially to laterally): VI, VII, VIII, IX. +1  
yotsubato  I looked at the left side (cause the nerves arent frazzled up). Saw 7 and 8 come out together nicely. Then picked the right sided version of 8 +2  
lolmedlol  why is it not H or I on the right side; the stem says he has hearing loss on the right side, so the lesion should be ipsilateral no? +1  
catch-22  You're looking at the ventral aspect of the brainstem. +7  
catch-22  ^Also, you know it's the ventral aspect because you can see the medullary pyramids. +  
amarousis  think of the belly of the pons as a pregnant lady. so you're looking at the front of her +1  
hello  which letter is CN IX in this diagram? +  
miriamp3  there is no VI nerve. That's the thing. The VI nerve should be in the angle between the pons and the medulla. Parallel to the pyramid. It goes V then VII and then VIII. I make the same mistake and I thought it was the picture but there is no VI par in the photo. They know We count from superior to inferior. +  
jesusisking  Don't G and H lowkey look like VII and VIII? I chose H b/c of that +  
ljennetten  G and H are CN VII and VIII on the left side, while this guy has right sided hearing loss. CN VI is not labeled in this photo, but is the smaller nerve that arises medial to CN VII and us cut most of the way up the pons. +  


submitted by lfsuarez(118),

First heart sound (S1) is generated by two heart valves: the mitral valve and tricuspid valve. Nearly simultaneous closing of these valves normally generates a single S1 sound. Splitting of the S1 sound is heard when mitral and tricuspid valves close at slightly different times, with usually the mitral closing before tricuspid

yotsubato  Then why the fuck is it describing a mitral valve sound in the tricuspid area +14  
dr.xx  it's describing a splitting S1 — consisting of mitral and tricuspid valve closure — that is best heard at the tricuspid (left lower sternal border) and mitral (cardiac apex) listening posts. +10  
titanesxvi  tricky question, I though what sound it is in the left sternal border, so I chose tricuspid valve, but what they where asking was, what is the first component of the S1 sound +1  
titanesxvi  tricky question, I though what sound it is in the left sternal border, so I chose tricuspid valve, but what they where asking was, what is the first component of the S1 sound +  
drzed  It shouldn't matter where you hear a split sound. For example, no matter where you auscultate on the heart, the second heart sound in a healthy individual will always be A2 then P2 (whether you are at the mitral listening post or the aortic listening post) The key is recognizing that the right sided valves in healthy individuals will always close later (e.g. the heart sounds are S1 S2, but more specifically M1 T1 A2 P2). The reason for this is simple: if you take a breath in, you will increase preload on the right side of the heart, and thus the greater volume will cause a delayed closure of the valve. This is physiologic splitting, and is better appreciated in the pulmonary and aortic valves because they are under greater pressure, and thus louder, but it can also be heard in the first heart sound. +3  
alexxxx30  yes agreed!! This question is mostly asking if you understand a few basic things regarding cardio physio. The left side of the heart is the higher pressure side so left sided valves will close first. The right side of the heart is the lower pressure side, which means right sided valves will open first. [Left closes first, Right opens first]...Secondly, it requires you to know what S1 and S2 sounds come from. S1 is the mitral/tricuspid valve closing and S2 is the Aortic/pulmonary valves closing. So really the question asks what is the first component of S1 (mitral or tricuspid closes first). And since we know that the left side will always close first, it must be mitral valve closure. Sorry if that was a long explanation. +3  
jesusisking  Thanks @alexxxx30, you the man! RIP Kobe +  


submitted by bobson150(5),

The wording of this question confused me. This is asking "which of these vessels is the high pressure system" right? So the high pressure superior rectal is causing increased pressure into the inferior rectal?

welpdedelp  Superior rectal comes from the inferior mesenteric vein which comes from the splenic vein --> portal veins Thus, this dude had cirrhosis so it would "back-up" into the superior rectal vein. FA 2018: p360 +11  
nc1992  Superior rectal not superior mesenteric. Took me a minute +  
hyperfukus  ugh am i ever gonna get these right EVER +5  
titanesxvi  why not the inferior mesenteric, since the superior rectal drains there +2  
thomasburton  @titanesxvi think it is because question says direct which is why superior rectal +2  
lilyo  thomasburton, so are they asking what vessels do internal hemorrhoids directly drain into? The order is Superior rectal vein--> Inferior mesenteric vein--> portal vein. +  
thomasburton  Yes exactly, so they do eventually reach IMV but not 'directly' +  
pg32  Also worded poorly because the varicosities are connections between the superior rectal and the middle/inferior rectal veins of the systemic circulation. So the blood could be in both the superior rectal vein and the middle/inferior rectal vein as that is what a varicosity is. +1  
snripper  You just gotta know indirect vs. direct hemorrhoids. In this case, it's an indirect hemorrhoid (superior rectal vein) because of the rectal bleeding. +  
jesusisking  @titanesxvi DrDoom explained it pretty well below: "Defining tributary: https://i.imgur.com/2zDxPbW.png Nice images make the term easier to recall. Smaller streams "pay tribute" to larger rivers (by flowing into them)" +  


submitted by seagull(840),

out of curiosity, how may people knew this? (dont be shy to say you did or didnt?)

My poverty education didn't ingrain this in me.

johnthurtjr  I did not +1  
nlkrueger  i did not lol +  
ht3  you're definitely not alone lol +  
yotsubato  no idea +  
yotsubato  And its not in FA, so fuck it IMO +1  
niboonsh  i didnt +  
imnotarobotbut  Nope +  
epr94  did not +  
link981  I guessed it because the names sounded similar :D +10  
d_holles  i did not +  
yb_26  I also guessed because both words start with "glu"))) +14  
impostersyndromel1000  same as person above me. also bc arginine carbamoyl phosphate and nag are all related through urea cycle. +  
jaxx  Not a clue. This was so random. +  
wolvarien  I did not +  
ls3076  no way +  
hyperfukus  no clue +  
mkreamy  this made me feel a lot better. also, no fucking clue +1  
amirmullick3  My immediate thought after reading this was "why would i know this and how does this make me a better doctor?" +5  
mrglass  Generally speaking Glutamine is often used to aminate things. Think brain nitrogen metabolism. You know that F-6-P isn't an amine, and that Glucosamine is, so Glutamine isn't an unrealistic guess. +2  
djtallahassee  yea, I mature 30k anki cards to see this bs +3  
taediggity  I literally shouted wtf in quiet library at this question. +1  
bend_nbme_over  Lol def didn't know it. Looks like I'm not going to be a competent doctor because I don't know the hexosamine pathway lol +1  
drschmoctor  Is it biochemistry? Then I do not know it. +2  
snoochi95  hell no brother +  
roro17  I didn’t +  
bodanese  I did not +  
hatethisshit  nope +  
jesusisking  I Ctrl+F'd glucosamine in FA and it's not even there lol +  
batmane  i definitely guessed, for some reason got it down to arginine and glutamine +1  
waterloo  Nope. +  
monique  I did not +  
issamd1221  didnt +  
baja_blast  Narrowed it down to Arginine and Glutamine figuring the Nitrogen would have to come from one of these two but of course I picked the wrong one. Classic. +  
amy  +1 no idea! +  


submitted by kchakhabar(29),

What threw me off in this question is the phrase "cells with little cytoplasm that are twice the size of lymphocytes." I though "small cell carcinoma" cannot be that big.

nala_ula  Omg literally the same thought process I had, that phrase through me off! +  
nala_ula  threw* +1  
jesusisking  Super counter-intuitive but apparently SCC cells are 1.5-4x the size of lymphocytes: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/1313679 +  


To maintain plasma osmolality -> Need to exactly replace all the fluids lost in the day

She cannot concentrate urine above 450 mOsm/kg , so the minimum amount of water required to be excreted by kidneys is 1 (to excrete the 450 mOsm she accumulates per day). The minimum excretion water required is necessarily at max concentration; if you were to say produce diluter urine, say 225mOsm/kg, this would require 2 L of water. The question wants the minimum possible water volume, so we assume she’s concentrating to the max.

1 L losses from kidney + 900 mL insensible + 100 mL in sweat and feces = 2L losses -> need to ingest 2 L of water to replace.

jesusisking  So helpful, thank you! +  


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