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 +0  (nbme20#10)

Prosthetic valves are one of the causes of extravascular hemolysis so suspect this in a patient that has symptoms of anemia such as fatigue, pallor, jaundice. Further supporting evidence in this patient is the increased indirect bilirubin. Also, look for elevated LDH, decreased haptoglobin.


 +0  (nbme20#29)

Tetracyclines most common adverse effects are nausea/vomit/diarrhea and photosensitivity. Can affect bones and teeth of newborn if given to pregnant women. Also this drug class covers GAS, GBS, +/- MRSA, respiratory flora and intracellular.

Why Cipro is not the answer: Macrolide covers GNR + Pseudo, therefore not a treatment for acne (skin flora). And common adverse effects are C.Diff infection, QT prolongation, tendon rupture, teratogenic effects.



 +0  (nbme20#8)

Take a look at FA pg.623 for tanner stages of sexual development.


 +0  (nbme20#16)

I was thinking along the lines of facial sensation which is mediated by the trigeminal nerve and the fact that the trigeminal nerve is located in the pons.


 +0  (nbme22#44)

I had the same question regarding this. I know that external hemorrhoids rarely bleed and internal hemorrhoids present as painless bleeding so in my mind I knew I was being asked about internal hemorrhoids. However, superior rectal--> inferior mesenteric vein--> portal vein, can anyone tell me why the answer was superior rectal and not inferior mesenteric?

dubywow  Because the wording sucks. It's a confusing way to word the question. I too was confused what direct tributaries was referring to and chose Inferior mesenteric because I suck and also because this question sucks. Really its asking where are the hemorrhoids? They are on/from the superior rectals even though those veins feed to Inferior mesenteric.




Subcomments ...

submitted by hayayah(418),

Statins can have a side effect of rhabdomyolysis.

lilyo  Statins have an increased risk of myopathy, specially when combined with other medications like Fibrates. This patient presents with muscle pain along with an elevated CK and + myoglobin test in urine. Consistent with myopathy. +  


submitted by xxabi(98),

This is a thyroglossal duct cyst. The tyroglossal duct may persist and result in a thyroglossal duct cyst (occurring in midline near hyoid bone or at the base of the tongue), thus will classically move up with swallowing or tongue protrusion.

The foramen cecum (of the tongue) is the normal remnant of the thyroglossal duct

lilyo  I got it wrong though because the question clearly asks what does this structure (thyroglossal duct) DEVELOP from, not this structure eventually develops to form which structure. If it asked that then I would have picked option A but because it didnt that was the first option I crossed out. +  


submitted by hello(67),

Patient's symptoms began 30 min after mowing lawn (i.e. after doing physical activity). He has severe chest pain and is cool, clammy, diaphoretic. He has increased pulmonary artery pressure and increased left atrial pressure. Taken altogether, this is cardiogenic shock.

Cardiogenic shock is a heart pump problem -- the LV isn't working.

When the LV, isn't working, it causes a back up in the direction opposite to how blood normally flows. Therefore, blood will back up in the lungs.

This causes increased capillary hydrostatic pressure --> this drives more fluid into the interstitium --> this causes increased interstitial hydrostatic pressure --> there is now more fluid than normal in the interstitium --> this affects the protein ratio within the interstitum --> this causes decreased interstitial oncotic pressure.

targetusmle  awesomely explained :) +  
lilyo  This was amazingly explained Thank you @Hello! +  


Legend:

OB = osteoblastic

OC = osteoclastic/osteolytic

P=prostate, B=breast, K=kidney, T=thyroid, L=lung

my mneumonic: Lead Kettle

P------------B-------------K--------------T------------L

OB-------OB/OC------OC------------OC--------OC/OB

lilyo  @chandlerbas is this pneumonic in order of most common to least common, as in is prostate cancer the most common cause of metastasis to the bone regardless of wether the patient presents with osteoclastic or osteoblastic lesions? +  


submitted by cyrus_em(0),

I don't know why I feel the correct answer is 100%. The ques states, "what is the chance that offsprings will EVENTUALLY develop cancer?, not inherit the mutation"

Prophylactic colectomy or else 100% EVENTUALLY progress to CRC.

lilyo  I also chose 100% with that same reasoning!!! +  
lilyo  @usmlecrasher, Yes it does so which is why if they inherited they have 100% chance of developing colon cancer later in life and the question was confusing because it didnt ask what is the percentage that this patient will have children with this mutation? It might be my language barrier but I don't know. +  


submitted by cyrus_em(0),

I don't know why I feel the correct answer is 100%. The ques states, "what is the chance that offsprings will EVENTUALLY develop cancer?, not inherit the mutation"

Prophylactic colectomy or else 100% EVENTUALLY progress to CRC.

lilyo  I also chose 100% with that same reasoning!!! +  
lilyo  @usmlecrasher, Yes it does so which is why if they inherited they have 100% chance of developing colon cancer later in life and the question was confusing because it didnt ask what is the percentage that this patient will have children with this mutation? It might be my language barrier but I don't know. +  


submitted by monoloco(57),

As a rule of thumb, if you give someone an ACE inhibitor and they get a problem, they had renal artery stenosis (usually bilaterally, or so we were taught at our med school). Probably has to do with decreased GFR thanks to decreased Angiotensin II–selective vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole => decreased sodium delivery to macula densa => increased renin release.

lilyo  Vasoconstriction of the EFFERENT arteriole actually leads to increased GFR. It selective VASODILATION of the efferent arteriole effect of ACE inhibitors since they undo Angiotensin II actions. This patient already has rescued renal blood flow due to bilateral renal artery stenosis, the addition of an ACE inhibitor further decrease GFR prompting an increase in renin due to loss of negative feedback. +  


submitted by xxabi(98),

Terminal Complement (C5-C9) Deficiencies increase susceptibility to recurrent Neisseria bacteremia. Patients most often present with recurrent meningitis.

lilyo  FA 2019 P. 107 Early and Terminal complement deficiencies. +  


submitted by strugglebus(69),

So you know that 65% of the data will fall within 1SD of the mean. So if you subtract 100-65 you will get 35. Which means that about 16% will fall above and 16% will fall below 1 SD. They are asking for how many will fall above 1 SD. I'm sure there is a better way of doing this, but thats how I got it lol.

sympathetikey  Same! +  
sympathetikey  Except according to FA, it's 68% within 1 SD, so 34%, which split in half is 17%. +2  
amirmullick3  Sympathetikey check your math :D 100-68 is 32 not 34, and half of 32 is 16 :) +2  
lilyo  Can anyone explain why we subtract 68 from 100? This makes me think that we are saying its 35% of the data that falls within 1SD as opposed to 65. HELLLLLLP +  
sallz  @Lilyo If you consider 1 SD, that includes 68% of the population (in this case, you're saying that 68% of the people are between 296 and 196 (1SD above and 1 below). This leaves how many people? 32% outside of that range (100-68=32); half of those would be above 296 and the other half below 296, so 16% +  


Itraconazole requires the acidic environment of the stomach to be absorbed. Omeprazole inhibits the H+/K+ pump of the stomach, thereby decreasing the acidity of the stomach. So when the patient takes Omeprazole and Itraconazole together, Itraconazole won't be absorbed into the body. That's why it has no effect.

It's recommended to take medications at least 2 hours prior to taking an antacid.

necrotizingfasciitis  Just adding support to the above explanation: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3671798/ +1  
pakimd  do all azoles or just itraconazole only requires an acidic environment to be absorbed? +1  
chandlerbas  just itraconazole and posaconazole +1  
lilyo  @chandlerbas, where did you find this information? I was looking over this on FA but they do not mention it and I would like a bit more information. Thanks! +  
chandlerbas  haha no stress! the article above submitted by @necrotizingfasciitis does a descent job explaining it, however its not good enough, I looked into a bit more on uptodate but wasn't fruitful in my endeavours. goodluck! +  


submitted by hayayah(418),

He has fecal incontinence so his external sphincter is damaged, which is innervated by the pudendal n. (S2-S4). The pelvic splanchnic nerves, which mediate the erection process, are also S2-S4.

thomasburton  Why could this not be dysuria? +  
lilyo  I think that you are thinking about urinary incontinence. If we damage the pudendal nerve S2-S4, you can exhibit urinary and fecal incontinence since this nerve innervates both the urethral and the external anal sphincters. However since the pelvic splanchnic nerves also have roots that originate in S2-S4 a patient with pudendal nerve damage will also have impotence since these control the erection reflex. He wouldn't have dysuria which is painful urination. Most likely caused by a urethral infection or a blockade of the urinary tract. He would have urinary incontinence. I hope this helps. +1  


submitted by bobson150(3),

The wording of this question confused me. This is asking "which of these vessels is the high pressure system" right? So the high pressure superior rectal is causing increased pressure into the inferior rectal?

welpdedelp  Superior rectal comes from the inferior mesenteric vein which comes from the splenic vein --> portal veins Thus, this dude had cirrhosis so it would "back-up" into the superior rectal vein. FA 2018: p360 +5  
nc1992  Superior rectal not superior mesenteric. Took me a minute +  
hyperfukus  ugh am i ever gonna get these right EVER +2  
titanesxvi  why not the inferior mesenteric, since the superior rectal drains there +  
thomasburton  @titanesxvi think it is because question says direct which is why superior rectal +1  
lilyo  thomasburton, so are they asking what vessels do internal hemorrhoids directly drain into? The order is Superior rectal vein--> Inferior mesenteric vein--> portal vein. +  
thomasburton  Yes exactly, so they do eventually reach IMV but not 'directly' +