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Welcome to homersimpson’s page.
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submitted by am4140(8), visit this page
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This is a BS question - I still picked the “right” answer because nothing else made sense, but this is not how this happens in real life. Having taken care of a million of these patients, they’re not trying to fake a disease or symptoms -> they’re thirsty and selfish with no ability to regulate their own behavior, and they throw temper tantrums and ring the call bell all day long asking for water - they’re definitely not hiding their water consumption. I’ve even seen people get desperate enough to drink out of the toilet because they’re “dying of thirst.”

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homersimpson  I think you're thinking of psychogenic polydipsia bruh, slightly different pathophys +1
madamestep  Yup! I think psychogenic and factitious would present the same, but factitious would be secretive +


submitted by madojo(212), visit this page
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Know your STD's baby ;-) (going through every other choice on this question):

  • Bacterial vaginosis caused by gardnerella vaginallis. Se a thin, off white discharge and fishy smell (fish in the garden). There's no inflammation Lab findings: pH greater than 4.5 (just like trichomoniasis), and a positive whiff test with KOH. Stem will say something about malodorous discharge and show the infamous CLUE CELLS if we are lucky. Not the answer for this question obviously because we would not expect vesicles with this bacterial disease.

  • Candidiasis is going to be your thick cottage cheese discharge, with inflammation. normal pH see pseudohyphae. Treat with topical nystatin, or oral fluconazole unless you're pregnant than use Clotrimazole. Again not going to see any vesicles.

  • Chancroid per uworld is associated with Haemophilus ducreyi you will have a Deep purulent painful ulcer with suppurative lymphadenitis. Will be told that patient has painful inguinal nodes, there may be multiple deep ulcers with gray-yellow exudate. You do cry with H. duCRYi This wouldn't be true for what our patient has in this question because we aren't told of any inguinal adenopathy. a link to a chancroid VDA

  • Chlamydia trachomatis causes lymphogranuloma venereum which is small shallow ulcers, painless, but then the large painful coalesced inguinal lymph nodes aka BUBOES. Compared with gonnorhea the discharge is more thinner and watery. Again not the case here as its painful and no mention of any BUBOOESS. The discharge in gonorrhea is more thicker. Both lead to PID, treat for both because confection is common. With both patient may have some sort of pain or burning sensation upon urination. Sterile pyuria though for both.

  • Condyloma accuminatum is a manifestation of HPV 6 + 11 (genital warts). They look like big cauliflowers. This is in contrast to Condyloma lata that you see in syphillis which is just a flatter latte brown looking macule.

  • Genital Herpes (the answer to the question) will present with multiple painful superficial vesicles or ulcerations with constitutional symptoms (fever, malaise) Just fits better than all the other choices I ran through.

  • Syphillis is the painless chancre. UW describes it as a single, indurated well circumscribed ulcer, with a clean base. See corkscrew organisms on DF microscopy. Keep in mind other painless ulcers are lymphogranuloma venereum of clamydia (but the buboes are whats painful not the ulcer), and granuloma inguinale (donovanosis - klebsiella granulomatis) but whats hallmark about this one is that its painless without lymphadenopathy

In short, be safe.

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drdoom  this write-up is AWESOME ... but it also made me vomit. +1
b1ackcoffee  This is awesome, writeup, not the stds. +1
lovebug  FA 2019 pg 184. I summed up @madojo's comment! this patient have "multiple, tender vesicles and ulcer". and scant vaginal discharge. A) Bacterial vaginosis -> NO vesicle -> r/o B) Candidiasis -> NO vesicle -> r/o C) Chancroid -> should have Inguinal Adenopathy -> r/o D) C. trachomatis -> have Large painful inguinal LN -> r/o E) Condyloma acuminata -> Big Cauliflower -> r/o F) Gental herpes -> YES!!! G) Gonorrhea -> NO Vesicle, creamy prulent discharge -> r/o H) C. trachomatis again (same as D) -> r/o I) Syphilis -> painless chancre -> r/o J) Trichomoniasis -> strawberry cervix, motile in wet prep -> r/o thanks @madojo! +
homersimpson  Gotta love the BUBOES +


submitted by tinydoc(276), visit this page
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Type 1 Familial Dyslipidemia (pg. 94 FA 19 )

increased TG ---> pancreatitis Eruptice / pruritis Xanthomas and HSM

Can be caused by Lipoprotien lipase or Apoprotien CII deficiency

they said that LPL is fine so its APO CII

Heparin seperates LPL from Herparin Sulfate Moeity on Vasc Endothelium allowing us to test its function in the lab.

I got it wrong too - Stupid Rote memorization recall Question.

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masonkingcobra  I think you need to know that ApoCII activates LPL not necessarily know the disease +11
yotsubato  Knowing the disease makes it easier to remember the details though +2
pg32  Mnemonic for these 4 types of dyslipidemias and their causes: 1 = LP meaning LPL is deficient (or anything associated with activating LPL, like C-II) 2 = LD meaning LDLR is deficient (or anything involved in interacting with LDLR, like B-100) 3 = E meaning ApoE is defective and 4 for more (VLDL) ("more" just meaning more letters in the cause (VLDL oversecretion)) +2
castlblack  One too many chylomicrONs, two much cholesterol, threE apo E gone, 4 put the fork down fatty +1
homersimpson  May sound stupid can you explain the "fork down fatty" part? +1


submitted by alexxxx30(68), visit this page
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did anyone else have to reread this question several times? The jumping back and forth from "this happened before, 1 week after, 6 weeks after" then this happened today, then" this happened 6 weeks postop" gave me whiplash. Tell the story in order! haha

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confidenceinterval  RIP anyone with a learning disability. I honestly think someone tried really hard to write something this confusing. +4
faus305  Quentin Tarantino wrote this one +4
homersimpson  Some Westworld Season 1 Shit +2


submitted by mcl(671), visit this page
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Homegirl got some cervical outlet syndrome and should probably take some stuff out of her backpack or get one of those lil roller ones.

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mcl  Whoops, my bad, THORACIC outlet syndrome +6
dr.xx  Stretching, occupational and physical therapy are common non-invasive approaches used in the treatment of TOS. The cervical rib can be surgically removed. +3
homersimpson  Anybody else read @mcl's comment in Tom Haverfords voice? +3
icrieeverytiem  Now that you mention it @homersimpson +1


submitted by cocoxaurus(59), visit this page
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Almost got tricked by this one because osteosarcoma also causes osteoblastic lesion. Osteosarcoma most commonly metastasizes to lungs though.

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impostersyndromel1000  This was in pathoma, he said prostate cancer causes osteoblastic lesions and "the board examiners really want you to know that". also following the potential site of mets helps choose the answer +2
snripper  Also, osteosarcoma is less common in the elderly, more common in males <20 y/o (per F.A 2020) +2
homersimpson  Osteosarcoma causes lytic bone lesions @cocoxarus +
chaosawaits  I definitely overthought this one to death. I had prostate adenocarcinoma, but then reread it to make sure I wasn't missing anything. The normal referenced labs made me reconsider. So I chose osteosarcoma. If anyone could explain the normal labs (no elevated ALP), I'd appreciate it. +1


submitted by lamhtu(139), visit this page
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Hemochromatosis associated with HLA-A3, but the appropriate screening test is serum transferrin saturation and ferritin levels

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homersimpson  So when do you perform HLA testing? Is it a confirmatory test? +2
weirdmed51  HLA typing is genetic testing- so can’t be screening. Could be confirmatory +1


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