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step7777
Also that:
Platelet problem = primary hemostasis = superficial bleeding
Coagulation problem = secondary hemostasis = "deep" / internal bleeding
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zevvyt
i thought I read that INR was 12 and got real confused on that question
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topgunber
is there a reason for the decreased PTT? or is that just a distraction
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justanotherimg
@topgunber It throwed me off as well, but I found this on google- Sometimes a traumatic or difficult blood collection may result in activation of the coagulation pathway in the sample, resulting in a shortened aPTT time. So I guess it was just a distraction.
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icrieeverytiem
It's still confusing. The decreased PT and PTT seemed like hypercoagulability and the only rationale to eliminate that is that he is asymptomatic. Unfortunately I picked DVT and lost an easy point.
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athenathefirst
also is subungal hemorrhage seen in infective endocarditis?
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waterloo
I Dont know what you mean by low EVV. But here's my thought process.
This pt lost lots of water, and when someone takes a laxative causing them to have diarrhea that will lead to metabolic acidosis. A buffering mechanism for the decreased bicarb in the blood is for H+ to leave cells and K+ to go into the cells. So he has to have hypokalemia (low K+ in serum). They gave him IV fluids, so his BP should be headed back to normal. I would think his RAAS will chill out. But it takes time to correct the acidosis, you're kidney won't just immediately stop reabs bicarb so you're body will still be buffering against the acidosis (H+ out of cell, K+ in).
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waterloo
sorry, I wrote increased bicarb, I meant DECREASED bicarb in the blood. And also should have written "you're kidney won't just immediately START reabs new bicarb" My Bad, wasn't trying to add to confusion.
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drdoom
i think by `EVV` author meant `ECV` (extracellular volume). @waterloo, appreciate the explanation but think something is off: loss of HCO3- via diarrhea should result in acidemia, which would oppose the presumption of ``H+ leaving cell, K+ going in´´.
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waterloo
hey so sorry, I must have been super tired posting this. Can't believe I made so many mistakes. Read over it again, and it sounds like gibberish. Wish there was a way to delete. My bad.
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waterloo
I think I tried to explain too hard. Looking at this question again, I think really the only this is when you lose that much volume, you lose bicarb and K+. Nothing really to do with acid-base. My b.
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castlblack
EVV = effective vascular volume. Thank you for trying to help but I still don't understand. I still agree with my above mechanism as correct. Whether or not it's most correct idk.
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amy
what about the long steamy bath? He also sweat a lot, and profuse sweating is going to cause hyponatremia?
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helppls
thats what I was thinking as well^^^ I figured he was sweating out a lot of NaCl
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icrieeverytiem
The Q mentions that he feels better after an infusion of fluids so I assumed any hyponatremia that he had must've been resolved.
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mcl
Whoops, my bad, THORACIC outlet syndrome
+6
dr.xx
Stretching, occupational and physical therapy are common non-invasive approaches used in the treatment of TOS. The cervical rib can be surgically removed.
+3
homersimpson
Anybody else read @mcl's comment in Tom Haverfords voice?
+3
icrieeverytiem
My dumbass thought nicotinic acid=something to do with smoking smh
+2
From Goljan:
Platelet problem = epistaxis, echymoses, petechia, bleeding from superficial scratches
Coagulation problem = late re-bleed, Menorrhagia, GI bleeds, hemarthroses