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Welcome to cocoxaurus’s page.
Contributor score: 52

Comments ...

 +0  (nbme24#3)
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TUB why is teh rusem sautsmopi moal?rn

I was aelb to anwrro it nwdo to R,AT eauebcs oenn fo eth tehor asenwr cohsiec made cumh e,ssne tbu teh ssaitmuop dha em nsodec gsginesu myefsl. naC meoenos pixenal atht bal i?digfnn kanhs!T

subclaviansteele  My take is that hes not super acidotic and the K is at the low end. +
nwinkelmann  see the comment by @zbird, which explains that the urine anion gap is important (which I took to interpret as more important than the serum K+ level, lol, because the normal K threw me off too). +

 +10  (nbme24#6)
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Llysta, I okwn atth etreh is a mc-3 aettcci atroa nufdo no ,TC btu an oitcra ymesanur douwl not orecupd seeth tpsy.osmm neEv fi uoy htohgut taht eht mptsmoys eewr deu to the A,AA uyo cuodl litsl teg to the trecrco sawner if uyo seu fha4's1emd aoer.gnnis

honey-crusted lesion  Great explanation! There's also a slide about this in the 100 Anatomy Concepts pdf but doesn't go into as much detail as this explanation. Thanks! +
djtallahassee  Good explanation but I think an AAA would be more likely superior mesenteric and hepatic. the SMA and IMA are more than 3 cm apart (L1 to L4ish), Triple A affecting both would be very large. I blew this question because I saw 3cm and jumped to AAA, didnt even see it was a sclerosis thing. Put the two closest arteries and moved on +

 +2  (nbme24#33)
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Polmalpai siruv uescas listPalopomais ni ainfns.t rwGhot ni avcol src=od ekwa rcy, rs,esesonah osrird.t

moxomonkey  ain't nobody got time for that +4

 +18  (nbme23#43)
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reP L-WDURO ioAocnrcanadme si iasscoeatd /w ngul nsgarric ateeldr ot msuarlngutooa ds,eeisa odl DOPC h(in)orcc adn mdgaea ude to rutecnrer umnaepno.i

arcanumm  Here i was thinking i was being clever by not being tricked by distractors when metastasis is more common... +5

 +2  (nbme22#16)
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mtlsAo otg idcterk yb stih neo abueecs mtasesaroooc loas scsaue iotcelbtossa roateOsoascm tosm nomolymc tszteimsaase ot ungsl tgou.hh

impostersyndromel1000  This was in pathoma, he said prostate cancer causes osteoblastic lesions and "the board examiners really want you to know that". also following the potential site of mets helps choose the answer +1
snripper  Also, osteosarcoma is less common in the elderly, more common in males <20 y/o (per F.A 2020) +1

 +1  (nbme22#41)
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uerptRu of aoyrlupmn blsbe era a mmcoon ascue fo oeatspsnonu entaxouphrom in oyngu uatdl seaml tath are tlal dna .nhit I nwko its' laso saoascdtie hwti k,sngimo ubt redgne and ybod bauisht esdmee kiel eht mreo ylkeil neasrw eerh nscie teh inaptte si a uogny amel.

Subcomments ...

submitted by bubbles(63),
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nCa nomeoes dcolu plieaxn ot me owh this si uiuaovlnqylec uobtesur lorcsisse idsetpe 1NF- and WeegS-erutbr loas gpserntien twih kisn ,olesins ipmpontegdyhe suacmel, nad ?reuesisz

And dinsrcionge eth igtnevae fyliam i,horsty I wlodu ahve mesauds ttah a prcidoas titnuoam (ekli WS) wlodu eb roem ..ieyl.kl

cocoxaurus  This question was tricky! Tuberous sclerosis= Hypopigmented= Ash leaf spot (The skin lesion in NF is Hyperpigmented- Cafe au lait and in Sturge Weber it's a port wine stain (also not hypopigmented). I'm assuming that the SINGLE raised flesh colored lesion is a Hamartoma (The angiofibromas in NF1 are typically multiple). Although both Tuberous Sclerosis and Sturge Weber are both associated with seizures, I used all the other stuff to narrow it down to the correct answer. Also, don't forget that there is Incomplete penetrance and variable expressivity in Tuberous Sclerosis. So I think the lack of family history of "seizure or major medical illness" was there to throw us off. +18  
bubbles  Thank you! :) I thought I really knew my congenital disorders, so I was a little annoyed when they trotted this question out +7  
pg32  @cocoxaurus I believe the single raised flesh-colored lesion is actually a Shagreen patch, which helps you arrive at TSC as the diagnosis. +1  

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rhwrevyEee I uonfd (pUTaotDe nda avseerl ps)paer sdia eht ignmsko si the btgesig rksi torafc rof ponssueoant atpn,mehruxoo itwh dboy btaiuhs dna ndeger begin a rselse kris. mA I utsj lmecyeoptl ensutradgdsmniin teh q?tineosu

imresident2020  Yes smoking is a risk factor but not the best option among the choices given. Check FA, it says that it occurs more in tall thin young males. Smoking isn’t even mentioned. Tall & thin males are more at risk because they have more negative intrapleural pressure. Check Uworld for this. +  
drdoom  You have to think about this using the concept of CONDITIONAL PROBABILITY. Another way to ask this type of question is like this: “I show you a patient with spontaneous pneumothorax. Which other thing is most likely to be true about this patient?” Said a different way: Given a CONDITION [spontaneous pneumo], what other finding is most likely to be the case? Still other words: Given a pool of people with spontaneous pneumothorax, what other thing is most likely to be true about them? In other words, of all people who end up with spontaneous pneumo, the most common other thing about them is that they are MALE & THIN. If I gave you a bucket of spontaneous pneumo patients -- and you reached your hand in there and pulled one out -- what scenario would be more common: In your hand you have a smoker or in your hand you have a thin male? The latter. +  
cocoxaurus  Rupture of pulmonary blebs are a common cause of spontaneous pneumothorax in young adult males that are tall and thin. I know it's also associated with smoking, but gender and body habitus seemed like the more likely answer here since the patient is a young male. +1