I get HOT T Bone STEAK IL 1 for fever

but 90% neutrophils, why cant it be LTB4 neutrophil chemotaxis?

Orchiectomy will remove the testosterone stimulus prostatic cancer cells are dependent upon for growth and division. With removal of this stimulus, the cells will undergo apoptosis (scattered shrunken cells are apoptotic bodies).

The other answers are unlikely:

• Corpora amylacea are small hyaline masses in the prostate gland of unknown significance. It would not be a change from normal to find these.
• Edema is unlikely as this is more characteristic of diseases like prostatitis where inflammatory cytokines cause leaky blood vessels. Orchiectomy would not cause prostatic inflammation.
• There is no stimulus for hypertrophy and rather with orchiectomy you are removing a growth stimulus.
• Necrosis of the blood vessel walls is not likely because the blood vessels are not affected by the loss of the androgens, rather the actual prostatic cells are.
• Widespread necrosis is also not likely as this is not the mechanism of death after testosterone removal (death will occur by apoptosis rather than necrosis) and widespread necrosis is more characteristic of infarct or something that causes massive sudden tissue death.

Cimetidine is one of the cytochrome p450 inhibitors which would allow increase of the concentration of diazepam to toxic levels by inhibiting its elimination. (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Diazepam)

SICKFACES.COM when I Am Really drinking Grapefruit Juice (FA2020 p252)

• Fur is a TRANSCRIPTION FACTOR that acts as a REPRESSOR to control the gene expression.

• if INCREASE IRON CONCENTRATION--> INCREASE Fur DNA binding = INCREASE the REPRESSOR function and the opposite action w/ [LOW IRON].

• Fur helps in the BACTERIAL VIRULENCE FACTORS control.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ferric_uptake_regulator_family

DKA is a state of decreased insulin; since we know that insulin causes a shift of K+ into the cells low levels of insulin will prevent this and result in hyperkalemia. In addition, due to hyperglycemia and high ECF osmolality water will shift out of the cells into the ECF and K+ shifts out with the water which will futher increase the hyperkalemia

Severe hypertension often leads to hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis (onion-skin appearance). Also see proliferation of smooth muscle cells.

would anyone be able to clarify what the others would be? A) Allergen mediated vasoconstriction, leading to ischemic tissue injury: Type I B) Binding of antigen to IgE on the surface of mast cells leading to mast cell degranulation: Type I C) deposition of antigen-antibody complexes within postcapillary venules, leading to activation of complement: Not sure D) Phagocytosis of antigen by neutrophils, leading to oxidant mediated tissue damage: Type III?

Is the grey supposed to be a suture? If not why would this not be wound healing therefore granulation tissue?

can someone please explain this question. i thought the patient is actually having cleft lip and palate, but why is the correct answer addressing only the cleft lip.

It was scabies, which is transmitted person-operon.

Is the part with "constant studying" just supposed to support that she has a psych disorder related to perfectionism, which is why she's going to extremes to control her weight?

Increased Levels of Myeloid cells ( Erythrocytosis, thrombocythemia, and granulocytosis) plus Dizziness and Headache increase the suspicion for Polycythemia vera.

Low EPO in PV due to Negative feedback on EPO release by kidney.

Murmurs and maneuvers: 1st thought = how does it change with preload. All murmurs except HOCM, MVP, and atrial myxoma severity is directly proportional to change in preload (i.e. increased preload=worse murmur, etc.). Because of this, DDx can be narrowed down to HOCM, MVP, and atrial myxoma right away because the murmur worsened with decreased preload (i.e. standing up) when all but exceptions with improve.

Atrial myxoma = MCC primary cardiac tumor due to proliferation of connective tissue mesenchyme; a pedunculated mass connected via stalk to atrium septum that is suspended in the atrial blood volume and moves with the volume movement.

Presentation: triad of 1) mitral valve obstruction (i.e. malaise, symptoms of cardiac failure, syncope, etc.), 2) symptoms of embolism (i.e. facial and right arm hemiparesis in patient), and 3) constitutional symptoms (i.e. fever, weight loss, symptoms resembling connective tissue disease, because tumor releases IL-6). Others include neurologic symptoms, "pseudo-mitral valve disease" auscultatory findings (i.e. diastolic murmur), and atrial enlargement (which could compress underlying structures and cause symptoms also).

Not only does standing decrease preload, which means LA volume is lower so mass isn't as "suspended" but more mobile, standing also increases the downward gravitation force, which would contribute to the tumor moving towards the base of the atrial chamber, "plopping" on the mitral valve leaflets, and potentially extending through and causing a functional type of mitral stenosis (i.e. worsening diastolic murmur). This video explains it really well: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=slIY64nViLg&t=161s

help with this one please.... is this because he has hyperTG AND Cholesterol AND chylomicrons.. only LL deficiency would explain all of these findings? I chose LDL R deficiency because I guess I though it would cause all of them to increase but is this type of deficiency only associated with high LDL?

So, T1/2-T5/6 are the sympathetic level for the heart. The stellate ganglion are cervical sympathetic ganglion. This question seems more incorrect (or a huge leap) to me. But hey, I know people will disagree.

I get this is a fluffy question and acknowledging the patient's reasons for missing insulin injections is the cuddliest, but I feel like this answer tows the line a bit. You don't want to say that missing doses is ok, but you also don't want to be mean to patient either. I thought this answer (A) was condoning her missing the injections, so I picked (C). In retrospect, I guess acknowledge means talk about/focus the conversation around.

Cholera = Fecal oral /Legionnaires = Legonalla pneumo = NO person to person only by inhalation of bacteria contaminated water /Lyme = tick bite /Meningiococcal = sharing respiratory and throat secretions (saliva or spit). Generally, it takes close (for example, coughing or kissing) or lengthy contact to spread these bacteria (CDC) /RMSF = tick bite

My understanding if BC>AC this is abnormal = conductive hearing loss = otosclerosis VS Sensoryneural hearing loss will have normal AC>BC = loss of hair cells

This is representative of leukoplakia, a pre-cancerous lesion of squamous cells. In order for it to spread to distant sites, it must first invade through the basement membrane/submucosa. Could be confused with oral hairy leukoplakia (which also is a white patch that classically arises on the lateral tongue). However, oral hairy leukoplakia is not pre-cancerous and is often associated with EBV infections or people that are severely immunocompromised.

Since you see vascularity that is why it is granulation tissue. Fibrous scar would be 1 month after and you wouldn't see that much blood.