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I don't think that's true, atresia literally means closure/absence of the lumen. I also got tripped up by the meconium but that could be just GI epithelium that was shed while in utero etc. I wouldn't change your definition of atresia.
one thing i would say is that in the case its due to failure of recanalization and not due to failure of formation like other types of atresia, so its possible that when it was de-canalized, it was not 100% closed allowing for some meconium to pass
i had notes from forever ago but i totally forgot lol
Really good observation
Never forget what our lord and savior Dr. Sattar says - environmental trigger in a genetically predisposed individual (aka multifactorial)!
No, the constant studying is to trick you into thinking shes abusing amphetamines.Amphetamines decrease appetite so a lot of people abuse them for weight loss. That combined with increased concentration to study all day errrday.. #onehellofadrug
forgot to mention, another side effect of amphetamines would be increased BP due to the increased catecholamines..don't forget to keep an eye out for that
would amphetamines influence electrolytes at all?
i thought exactly the same!! 2 cells looked like tear drop cells :/
I thought there were tear drop cells too. Seemed like it should be a metaplasia then. Oh well
I did the same, but looking at FA19 pg 423 it says "ineffective hematopoiesis --> defects in cell maturation of nonlymphoid lineage." You can get bilobed neutrophils, or if it progressed to AML you'd see auer rods. Nothing about tear drop cells. Then on pg 406 tear drop cells would be seen in myelofibrosis, and possibly thalassemias
I thought the same, but I think that would be myelofibrosis, not myelodysplastic. Hb is really high here too. Pretty tricky for them to put that there, easy knee jerk.
Interestingly enough, agnogenic myeloid metaplasia is the old name for myelofibrosis, with "agnogenic" being synonymous with "idiopathic." (or did everyone already know this)
His glycogen concentration is high, since he's been hyperglycemic with lots of insulin until birth.
Also explains why he's 12 pounds.
Also, think of it like this:
Insulin causes hypoglycemia, thus this baby must have increased insulin. It is also an anaobolic hormone which is clear by the babys weight.
Insulin increases glycogen synthase activity, and causes an increase in concentrations of glycogen. Decrease in insulin would do exactly the opposite
fetus of a mom with DM will develop pancreatic beta cell hyperplasia, which leads to insulinemia trying to reduce the blood glucose. after birth, the excessive blood glucose will be automatically withdrawn while the insulin at that moment is still high, which leads to hypoglycemia.
Great explanation, except that there was a question in NBME 22 in which the prostatic carcinoma was osteolytic. One of the commenters here looked it up and apparently it's like that 30% of the time or something. So I guess you would have to use the high output HF, normal Ca, high ALP, and mosaic pattern to "play odds" as Goljan would say.
At least they were nice enough to put Paget disease because I had no idea what osteitis deformans is.
USMLE seems to be moving away from using eponymous names... so it's a good idea to see if there is a descriptive name for diseases. For example, they don't use the word "Wegener" anymore if you have noticed, since it turns out that guy was a nazi. So now they call it by what it is -- granulomatosis with polyangitis.
Standard lab values are incorrect, way to go NBME.
I think they mean to put mm Hg. Normal CSF pressure is about 100-180 mm H20 which equates to about 8-15 mm Hg.
I lost a bit of time wondering about that ugh lol
I thought there must be an obstruction in the ventricles somewhere preventing csf from getting to the spine. so pressure is low in spinal tap but in the head it must be really high.
Pseudo tumor cerebri can have normal ICP. Who knew
Hi, mjmejora, MRI did not see anything abnormality, couldn't this mean that there was no obstruction in the ventricles?
Also, lung adenocarcinoma is the most common lung cancer overall, most common in women, and most common in non-smokers. I know she smoked in the past, but that's what tipped me off to it.
Yeah I literally picked SCC bc I knew she'd smoked in the past smh
20 years of non smoking history ,she wouldnt be at elevated risk for smoking related carcinoma.
According to FA19 p. 693, large cell carcinoma of the lung is also peripheral.
I missed this bc didn't notice it was a middle-aged guy w/ just 3 year hx of Type 1 DM.
I got it mixed up with primary adrenal insufficiency and the acth ⇒ hyperpigmentation.
testicular atrophy &hepatomegaly helped me out to eliminate the options..when i was left with ferritin and saw pigmentation it clicked that it is hemochromatosis
Symptoms of Darkening of skin, liver dysfunction, diabetes, with testicular atrophy will always be hemochromatosis
Thank you for your explanation!
One question: How about the serine phosphorylation? Is it answered by pure memorization that the FOXO TF is serine phosphorylated, or is it a general fact that all TF's are serine-threonine phosphorylated?
I'm not sure, but it may be as simple as this: ubiquitin-mediated proteolysis is irreversible, but both N/C shuttling and phosphorylation are generally reversible processes.
I also guessed that FOXO must be a part of the PI3K pathway, since insulin regulates metabolism through PI3K and the question stem specifically mentions that. Phosphorylation is a major part of that pathway, so even indirectly phosphorylation would regulate FOXO. Frustrating question.
According to wikipedia (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/FOXO1) phosphorylation of FOXO1 is irreversible. This is referring to phosphorylation of serine residues on FOXO by Akt, which occurs in response to insulin. But the NBME answer suggests it's reversible. What's up?
could wiki be wrong on phosphorylation being irreversible? according to this article, it is a reversible process: regulation of FoxO transcription factors by reversible phosphorylation and acetylation (https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0167488911000735#s0010)
some wiki info, however, is helpful : In its un-phosphorylated state, FOXO1 is localized to the nucleus, where it binds to the insulin response sequence located in the promoter for glucose 6-phosphatase and increases its rate of transcription. FOXO1, through increasing transcription of glucose-6-phosphatase, indirectly increases the rate of hepatic glucose production. However, when FOXO1 is phosphorylated by Akt on Thr-24, Ser-256, and Ser-319, it is excluded from the nucleus, where it is then ubiquitinated and degraded. The phosphorylation of FOXO1 by Akt subsequently decreases the hepatic glucose production through a decrease in transcription of glucose 6-phosphatase.
It seems like the phosphorylation from Akt leads to destruction, but maybe the assumption is that that phosphorylation step (excluding every other step of ubiquitin-proteosome pathway) is reversible, where proteolysis is final.
@niboonsh video is good but doesn't split this one.