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Welcome to freemanpengโ€™s page.
Contributor score: 7


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 +0  visit this page (nbme24#49)
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No such thing as hypoallergenic dogs!!

The major dog allergen, Can f 1, is responsible for allergies in most people who are allergic to dogs. Hypoallergenic breeds of dogs were promoted because it was thought they would produce lower concentrations of Can f 1, and therefore cause less (or even no) allergic symptoms in people with a dog allergy. Examples of dog breeds that have previously been labeled as hypoallergenic include Poodles, Labradoodles, and Yorkshire terriers. There is no scientific proof these breeds truly produce lower amounts of Can f 1; these dogs were simply labeled as hypoallergenic because of the false assumption that dog breeds that do not shed hair must release less allergen.

(Nicholas CE, Wegienka GR, Havstad SL, Zoratti EM, Ownby DR, Johnson CC. Dog allergen levels in homes with hypoallergenic compared with nonhypoallergenic dogs. Am J Rhinol Allergy. 2011;25(4):252โ€“256. doi:10.2500/ajra.2011.25.3606)

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freemanpeng  Surprisingly, the amount of Can f 1 found in hair and coat samples was actually highest in the "hypoallergenic" breeds of dogs, with Poodles having the highest amount of the dog allergen, and Labrador Retrievers having the lowest amount. (Vredegoor DW, Willemse T, Chapman MD, Heederik DJ, Krop EJ. Can f 1 levels in hair and homes of different dog breeds: Lack of evidence to describe any dog breed as hypoallergenic. Journal of Allergy and Clinical Immunology. 2012;130(4). doi:10.1016/j.jaci.2012.05.013) +

 +1  visit this page (nbme24#25)
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But i was thinking back and chest are protected by clothese and Scalp protected by hat or hair and Palm not much exposed. So I chose forehead.

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 +0  visit this page (nbme24#5)
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No one talks about AR? That's much more unlikely in this case than XR

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 +0  visit this page (free120#40)
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Hypersensitivity pneumonitis (inflammatory interstitial pneumonitis) is a hypersensitivity reaction following exposure to environmental allergens. It is associated with inflammatory interstitial lung disease. Chronic inflammatory pneumonitis leads to destruction of Type I pneumocytes, an increase in Type II pneumocytes to serve as progenitor cells to replace alveolar cells, and an increase in fibroblast proliferation.

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 +0  visit this page (free120#37)
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This 36-year-old patient with protruding abdomen has fluid collection in the omental bursa (lesser sac) on CT imaging. The omental bursa (lesser sac) is the cavity in the abdomen that is formed by the lesser and greater omentum. It is connected with the greater sac via the omental foramen.

The omental bursa is a complex and important anatomical region. It serves as a barrier to block pathological processes, but it is also a channel for disease spread in the abdominal cavity. It is a large recess of the peritoneal cavity formed by a double-layered fold of serous peritoneum situated inferiorly to the liver, posteriorly to the lesser omentum and the stomach and anteriorly to the pancreas.

Under physiological conditions the omental bursa is poorly visualized, both because it is situated deeply in the abdomen and because the cavity is merely a potential one containing only a small amount of liquid, which acts as a lubricant. However, the omental bursa may become clearly visible in the presence of disease.

The pathological conditions of the omentum are varied, and findings may range from fluid collection to widespread infiltration. Ascites (regardless of the cause), pancreatic necrosis during and after acute pancreatitis, chronic pancreatitis, surgery involving the pancreas or trauma may cause peripancreatic fluid collections. The omental bursa may therefore present noninflammatory or inflammatory fluid collections in different phases, pancreatic pseudocysts and hematoma.

a link to anatomy https://eidimages.s3.us-west-1.amazonaws.com/images/coronal%20diagram%20of%20abdomen.png-1592945646758.png

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 +0  visit this page (free120#8)
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The patient is presenting with headache, myalgia, fatigue, sudden onset of high fever and chills, unilateral swollen and tender lymph nodes, and buboes containing malodorous pus discharge has the bubonic plague and must be treated with aminoglycosides which interfere with ribosomal assembly. The bubonic plague is caused by Yersinia pestis โ€“ a small facultative intracellular gram-negative bacilli. It is transmitted from rodents to fleas to humans. Reservoirs include rats, squirrels, and prairie dogs of the southwest US. The bubonic plague presents with hot, red swollen lymph nodes (especially in the inguinal regions), and skin hemorrhages with black discoloration.

Alternatively, this patient may be infected by Francisella tularensis โ€“ another small gram-negative coccobacillus that is facultative intracellular within macrophages. The organism enters at site of infection, then travels in macrophages to reticuloendothelial organs where it produces caseating granulomas. It is transmitted from wild animals to Dermacentor tick/deer flies to humans. Ulceroglandular Tularemia is one of the presentations and presents with black skin ulcer at the site on infection, swollen, red lymph nodes; all of which closely resembles the bubonic plague.

Both Francisella tularensis and Yersinia pestis infections can be treated with an aminoglycoside

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 +0  visit this page (free120#23)
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But i was thinking TUMOR NECROSIS (factor, TNF).And fact that rapid growing tumor alwasy get necrosis due to deficient blood supply(eg. GBM). And Burkitt is definitely rapid growing(High ki-67) Please correct me thx

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 +0  visit this page (free120#31)
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The key is when her legs up, Bp normal and symptoms free. In contast, When standing up(running), low Bp and syncope. And Low volume is surly the MMC. It's just so weird. "retrospective posture change"??

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 +0  visit this page (free120#19)
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For those choosing puppies: Puppies, New pet-----Toxocara canis Pet feces(eg puppies)---Yersinia

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 +0  visit this page (free120#2)
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FA2021 p276 "Thank the patient for being patient and apologize for any inconvenience. Stay away from efforts to explain the delay." So it's another ugly FA-copying Qs

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 +0  visit this page (nbme18#43)
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Most petroleum jelly today is used as an ingredient in skin lotions and cosmetics, providing various types of skin care and protection by minimizing friction or reducing moisture loss (from wiki)

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 +0  visit this page (nbme22#1)
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Firstly, I chose ADH. When I thought twice in review, I picked crossed ADH and picked ANP. My logic to cross ADH: 1. The main inducer of ADH are Osm and BP/vlomue. THis pt, Osm obviously not high, Bp obviously not low. So, nonsense in increased ADH. 2.You may see AngII also induces ADH. But it seems to be a minor inducer. Meanwhile, if it is exactly high AngIIโ†’ high ADH. Then, Aldo must be high as well, and High Aldo โ†’Salt preservingโ†’ HOW CAN serum Sodium be LOW? "Low Cardiac outputโ†’ High RASS (AngII Aldo ADH)" pathway is WATER-SODIUM retention. NOT pure WATER retention Please correct me

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 +0  visit this page (nbme21#34)
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Can anyone explain what "diplopia" implies? I got sutck by"these clinical findings" (thinking upward gaze+ diplopia....) Or is "Diplopia" just a unspecific word in exam??

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Subcomments ...

submitted by freemanpeng(7), visit this page
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No such thing as hypoallergenic dogs!!

The major dog allergen, Can f 1, is responsible for allergies in most people who are allergic to dogs. Hypoallergenic breeds of dogs were promoted because it was thought they would produce lower concentrations of Can f 1, and therefore cause less (or even no) allergic symptoms in people with a dog allergy. Examples of dog breeds that have previously been labeled as hypoallergenic include Poodles, Labradoodles, and Yorkshire terriers. There is no scientific proof these breeds truly produce lower amounts of Can f 1; these dogs were simply labeled as hypoallergenic because of the false assumption that dog breeds that do not shed hair must release less allergen.

(Nicholas CE, Wegienka GR, Havstad SL, Zoratti EM, Ownby DR, Johnson CC. Dog allergen levels in homes with hypoallergenic compared with nonhypoallergenic dogs. Am J Rhinol Allergy. 2011;25(4):252โ€“256. doi:10.2500/ajra.2011.25.3606)

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freemanpeng  Surprisingly, the amount of Can f 1 found in hair and coat samples was actually highest in the "hypoallergenic" breeds of dogs, with Poodles having the highest amount of the dog allergen, and Labrador Retrievers having the lowest amount. (Vredegoor DW, Willemse T, Chapman MD, Heederik DJ, Krop EJ. Can f 1 levels in hair and homes of different dog breeds: Lack of evidence to describe any dog breed as hypoallergenic. Journal of Allergy and Clinical Immunology. 2012;130(4). doi:10.1016/j.jaci.2012.05.013) +


submitted by stars and more(16), visit this page
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X linked recessive there can never be any Male to Male transfer since the male offspring gets Y from father. the pedigree shows Male to Male transmission so this cannot be X linked recessive

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weirdmed51  ??? +
weirdmed51  The pedigree shows only affected male, hence there has been female to male transmission (females-carriers). Hence X linked recessive. +
weirdmed51  Nevermind, I got it wrong. +1
freemanpeng  I beg to differ... AR is much more unlikely than XR in this case. 1. XR, you only need 2 carrier wivies 2. AR, you need(1)2 carrier wives and(2)only boys inherited that mutated gene. Poor NBME guys, knowing nothing about maths, only sticking to stupid "Male to Male transmission" law +


submitted by lukin4answer(11), visit this page
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Can anyone clarify why "BOTH PARENTS had learning difficulties??""

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freemanpeng  Because they are perfect match for each other i believe +1


submitted by trichotillomaniac(121), visit this page
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its best to think about pituitary adenomas as one of three big options, prolactin secreting, ACTH secreting, or GH secreting. The only pituitary tumor that causes osteoporosis and therefore the compression fractures seen in the questions could be a ACTH secreting pituitary adenoma (note: macroadenoma just means that the tumor is >10mm in size). increased ACTH leads to increased cortisol and therefore decreased osteoblastic activity (bone formation) = osteoporosis

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nnp  even prolactin causes reduced bone density +3
jmangels  I was thinking the same thing about the prolactin, but the weight gain made me lean toward ACTH +5
jurrutia  Prolactinoma reduces bone density due to suppression of estrogen. However, that wouldn't explain weight gain. +1
burak  I think compressing effect of prolactin macroadenoma may cause decreased level of TSH and by doing so it may lead to hypothyroidism and weight gain. But this is overthinking I guess :( +
freemanpeng  Weight gain saved me. Prolactinoma is definitely more common pituitary adenoma while ACTH is definitely more common cause of osteoporsis to the point of compression fractrue! +


submitted by merpaperple(45), visit this page
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Here's how I understand this; please correct me if I'm wrong: Fibrin exudation is part of the acute inflammatory response if the inflammatory stimulus is a lacerating wound, (such as, in this patient, perforated diverticulitis), along with platelets and other clotting factors, in order to clot the wounded area. Hence in this patient who died 2 days following acute perforated diverticulitis, the inflammatory exudate surrounding the liver would most likely contain fibrin (not collagen, since the inflammation is acute and not chronic). Fibronectin and proteoglycans, the other two options, are extracellular matrix proteins.

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freemanpeng  I thought it's Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome(PID most common but diverticulitis also anatomically close). UTD: "On laparoscopy or visual inspection, perihepatitis manifests as a patchy purulent and fibrinous exudate ("violin string" adhesions), most prominently affecting the anterior surfaces of the liver (not the liver parenchyma)." +1


submitted by focus(45), visit this page
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Petrolatum is a compound found in sunscreen.

He started working outdoors AKA getting sunburns (if left unprotected, lower lips are one of the prime locations where people can develop squamous cell cancer later on). He should really use sunscreen, which is a barrier (absorbs the UV rays so the skin does not-- rather than deflecting the sun rays.)

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freemanpeng  You so choose UV light blocker? +


submitted by pelparente(31), visit this page
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If it ain't broke don't fix it. The patient is showing improvement and there are no signs of developing drug resistance or unwanted side effects, so maintain the patient on her current therapy.

Typical antiretroviral HIV therapy regime is:

3 NRTIs OR 2 NRTIs AND 1 NNRTI OR 1 Protease inhibitor OR 1 Integrase inhibitor

In this case the patient is on 2 NRTIs (emtricitabine, tenofovir) and an NNRTI (efavirenz)

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nbmeanswersownersucks  and here comes my dumbass that read the lower CD4 count as his newer labs (instead of old) and was trying to figure out why his drug combo wasn't working.... +31
vicebm94  same here.. +
thrawn  Amused +
kcyanide101  Same here... Thought pt was loosing virologic control, so choose/guessed one of the two options regarding dropping one NRTI ๐Ÿ˜ฉ +
freemanpeng  May partly due to his CD4# hasnt become normal?(like >500) +
eimal786  how can I get these scrambled comments fixed?// +
drdoom  hi @eimal786. you can sign up for a membership here: https://nbmeanswers.com/membership +


submitted by sympathetikey(1600), visit this page
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Histone acetylation allows for relaxation of the DNA so that transcription can proceed. All trans retinoic acid causes the granulocytes in APML to further mature, which requires DNA transcription / translation.

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osler_weber_rendu  The questions asks for response to ATRA. Should that not be decreased transcription to treat the cancer? Which makes methyl transferase (aka methylation) the more likely answer +9
pg32  @osler, no @sympathetikey is correct. ATRA's mechanism in treating APML is to encourage the cells to mature. Maturation would require gene transcription, meaning histone acetylases would be used. +9
nnp  but ATRA is letting transcription of an abnormal protein ( that is 15:17 translocation) +3
lowyield  i believe the mechanism of APML is that the compound protein is ineffective at allowing for maturation of the blasts. giving ATRA allows the blasts to circumnavigate this step, relieving the backup +13
freemanpeng  FYI: acetylases are usually called acetyltransferases. I got quite confused thinking "acetylases" means getting rid of acetyl(just like phostase)... +


submitted by azibird(279), visit this page
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A laminectomy removes the lamina and spinous process. The lamina is the posterior bridging segment (D). The lateral bridging segment is the pedicle (B).

However, I don't understand how you could access the herniated disc from this angle, the spinal cord would be in the way! Can someone explain?

https://www.mayoclinic.org/tests-procedures/laminectomy/about/pac-20394533

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scrambledeggs  Take a look at the section labeled Laminotomy and Discectomy. https://eorthopod.com/lumbar-discectomy/ +7
coby219  "Intervertebral disc (nucleus pulposus) herniates posterolaterally through annulus fibrosus (outer ring) into central canal due to thin posterior longitudinal ligament and thicker anterior longitudinal ligament along midline of vertebral bodies. Nerve affected is usually below the level of herniation." - first aid 19 p455 +5
chj7  Adding to coby219, after knowing herniation most commonly occurs posterolaterally, we would most likely choose between B and D. The only reasonable choice from a surgical perspective would be D b/c we would most likely be entering the patient's vertebrae from the back (thus, B would be harder to access). +1
freemanpeng  Question stem said" laminectomy". I just ingored it and kept struggling between lamina(D) and pedicle(B)...... So, it's not about neurosurgery; it's just basic anatomy! +1


submitted by welpdedelp(270), visit this page
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Hemochromatosis, aka "bronze diabetes". Cannot be Addison due to the hyperglycemia and normal BP

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alexb  I missed this bc didn't notice it was a middle-aged guy w/ just 3 year hx of Type 1 DM. +2
tinydoc  I got it mixed up with primary adrenal insufficiency and the acth โ‡’ hyperpigmentation. +18
maddy1994  testicular atrophy &hepatomegaly helped me out to eliminate the options..when i was left with ferritin and saw pigmentation it clicked that it is hemochromatosis +3
krewfoo99  Symptoms of Darkening of skin, liver dysfunction, diabetes, with testicular atrophy will always be hemochromatosis +5
freemanpeng  After I picked out the right answer. I thought that"dx of DM 1 3yrs ago" may be made by a stupid physician. +


submitted by yotsubato(1208), visit this page
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Although acetaminophen (Tylenol) is not considered an NSAID, it too may provoke an aspirin-like sensitivity.

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meningitis  For that same reason (not an NSAID) it doesn't reduce inflammation so it cant be used for Gout. +7
meningitis  And I think Indomethacin is associated with anaphylactic reactions in patients with aspirin-sensitive asthma and aspirin allergies. Can anyone confirm? +1
link981  How many other's like me didn't see "allergic to aspirin"? FML +3
hyperfukus  OMFG me too i just got so mad and questioned my whole life at least its cuz i can't read not bc i don't understand :((((( +1
an1  Actually, from what I recall from UW, acetaminophen actually is an NSAID... it only acts centrally though. From FA: "Reversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase, mostly in CNS. Inactivated peripherally." But for that reason, It wouldn't be helpful for gout because it can't do squat in the periphery, which is where gout accumulates. +
freemanpeng  link981 Are u blind? +


submitted by ilikecheese(46), visit this page
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corticosteroids - steroid bind to receptor located in nucleus or cytoplasm --> transformation of receptor to expose DNA-binding protein etc pg 332 FA 2019

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weirdmed51  Anyone knows the answers to other options ? +1
freemanpeng  Make Amercica Greater Again! +1


submitted by mcl(671), visit this page
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Pronator teres and quadratus are both supplied by median nerve (C5/C6/C7/C8/T1, so that's not super helpful.) Extension of the forearm is radial nerve (also C5-T1, also not helpful). This does tell us is it can't be isolated median or radial. Triceps tendon reflex is C7/C8, which narrows it down to these two.

Can anyone explain why it's C7 over C8?

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joha961  Same question. How could you determine between the specific nerve roots (C7 vs. C8)? +2
mcl  Someone I was talking to (and post below) was saying that first aid mentions triceps is C7, so that's what should've been the big thing for us. +4
joanmadd  you might see some ulnar nerve involvement if C8 was involved her +1
passplease  but he has generalized tingling which is in both ulnar and median regions? +
chaosawaits  Also, C7 is the most common affected nerve root. If it's a choice between C7 and something else, go with C7 always unless you can definitively prove it's not. +
freemanpeng  I thinck it's the etiology. Single C7 lesion----Cervical radiculopathy(Most common one: C66-7 disc); No such thing as Single C8 lesion. Actually more C8 and T1 lesion(Lower trunk) +1


submitted by imgdoc(183), visit this page
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I think alot of people might have over emphasized how important ANP and BNP really are, yes it is important to know these peptides get secreted by the atrial/ventricular myocardium during heart failure. However their overall effectiveness in treating heart failure is zilch, a preceptor told me that if ANP and BNP were so useful in natriuresis then why do we give diuretics? It's because RAAS overpowers this system hence causing negative effects and the endless loop of heart failure. AKA why we give ACE inhibitors.

Knowing that ANP gets neutralized by the RAAS system, we can shift our focus back to heart failure in this patient, where cardiac output is decreased, leading to ADH secretion and finally dilutional hyponatremia.

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almondbreeze  a concept continuously emphasized by uw, but I get always wrong :'( +4
almondbreeze  good work done! +1
raffff  why does the body make anp at all since its so useless +4
makinallkindzofgainz  @raffff - at least BNP gives us a good marker for heart failure exacerbations :) thanks body! +1
mannan  Yeah it's important clinically because it has a high sensitivity (if negative, rule out) for Heart failure. +1
alimd  At the same time ANP inhibits renin release? +1
freemanpeng  If it is High RAAS, Aldo must be High as well(AngII induce Aldo more than ADH). Then that would be SALT-WATER retention rather than PURE WATER retention. NO hyponatremia +
plaguedbyspleen  This patient is third-spacing and therefore has low effective circulating volume. I like to think that given his CV history, he is probably on an ACE inhibitor or something similar. So that leaves ADH to do its thing. Also high aldosterone saving salt isn't something we need to consider given the stem and answer choices. +


submitted by cassdawg(1781), visit this page
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Segmented neutrophils should be the largest population of leukocytes. This girl has had a very low neutrophil population since birth, indicative of congenital neutropenia. All other cell counts are normal (RBC count and hematocrit at birth are actually high but normalize by 1 month).

None of the other disorders would cause severe neutropenia. SCID and DiGeorge are more likely to have lymphopenia. Congenital CMV causes hearing loss, seizures, rash, chorioretinitis, and periventricular calcifications. Alloimmune hemolytic disease of the newborn would present with anemia.

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freemanpeng  between 4-6 days and 4-6 years old, Lymphcyte#>Neutrophil # +


submitted by sympathetikey(1600), visit this page
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Inferior oblique = helps you look up & in.

Also, they said floor of the orbit, so it makes sense that the inferior muscles would damaged.

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sahusema  I know you're right. I was just so uncomfortable picking an answer with "inferior rectus" because damage to the inferior rectus does nothing to explain the clinical findings of impaired upward gaze. Unless the muscle is physically stuck and can't relax or something +7
emmy2k21  Agreed. Why would a dysfunctional inferior rectus contribute to impaired upward gaze??? I eliminated that answer choice and got it wrong :( +2
dr_jan_itor  in the last sentence it asks you to assume an "entrapment", so it is actually the inferior rectus which is the cause of the upward gaze palsy. The entrapped muscle is functionally trapped in it's shortened position, thereby not allowing the orbit to gaze upward. +16
chandlerbas  bam! dr_jan_itor just cleaned up that confusion +2
weirdmed51  Why inferior oblique then? Doesnโ€™t IO helps to look up ? +1
freemanpeng  May be IR is stronger than IO in downward gaze? +


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