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NBME 22 Answers

nbme22/Block 4/Question#22 (23.7 difficulty score)
A 37-year-old man comes to the physician for ...
Hyperplastic arteriolosclerosisπŸ”

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submitted by mattnatomy(41),
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meningitis  and explains the flame hemorrhages (Goljan) caused by malignant HTN +5  
taediggity  FA 2020 pg. 537 +  
dentist  FA 2020 pg 301* +  
ally123  The flame hemmorhages are also a good buzz word for recognizing he has hypertensive retinopathy 2e chronic, uncontrolled HTN. Pt's with hypertensive retinopathy can also present with "cotton wool spots" and "macular star". Pics on FA 2019, p. 299 +2  
surfacegomd  Pathoma (2018) p. 69 +  

submitted by peridot(57),

While I understand why it's hyperplastic arteriosclerosis and how it classically occurs with HTN, I was wondering why it couldn't be berry aneurysm? Is it because the question is asking which is "most likely", making C the better answer? Thank you.

mannan  Berry Aneurysm is not CAUSED by HTN. It's caused by weakening of the arterial wall (at bifurcations). Hypertensive disease exacerbates them and causes the clinical picture of SAH (worst headache of life) when they rupture. Hope that helps -- Reference: FA CNS pathology, aneurysms. +1  
usmleboy  Actually according to Goljan this is incorrect. Berry aneurysms are caused by hypertension. The weakening of the wall (no tunica media) at bifurcations is inherent in human anatomy. Basically you have to have elevated BP to cause the dilation, outside of the inherited connective tissue disorders. Hence why PKD has the berry association. However, these aneurysms present with extremely prolonged HTN, whereas our guy in this Q only has a 1 year history. The key to answering this question is recognizing that this is MALIGNANT hypertension that is relatively acute in onset. Malignant HTN = hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis (onion rings). +1