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Contributor score: 370


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 +9  visit this page (nbme24#39)
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This boy has achondroplasia, which is caused by an autosomal dominant mutation in Fibroblast Growth Factor Receptor 3. FGF signaling is needed for proper cartilage function, and without it, the long bones of the body will not grow because the growth plate (made of chondrocytes) does not function. However, bones that undergo membranous ossification, like the bones of the head, will grow normally. This results in the patient having short extremities with a normal size trunk and large head relative to the limbs.

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mumenrider4ever  Small edit, achondroplasia is due to constitutive activation (not inactivation) of FGFR3, which inhibits chondrocyte proliferation +11

 +8  visit this page (nbme24#16)
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The patient seems to have an infection due to their elevated temperature and abnormal chest X-ray. However, their leukocyte count is low. In addition, the patient has hepatitis C, which is often associated with similar transmission routes to HIV, like intravenous drug use.

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sajaqua1  Not only is their WBC count low, it is not uniform. If we assume a minimum normal WBC count of 5000 cells/mL^3, and a regular range of ~60% neutrophils, then normally a person should have ~3,000 neutrophils/mL^3. This patient has a total of 2000 cells/mL^3, with 1,800 neutrophils/mL^3. Their lymphocytes and macrophages have been whiped out. This is best accounted for by HIV. +47
koftawesa  CXR sounded like pneumocystis jiroveci which HIV patients are at high risk for- infections like these are usually the way HIV patients find out they have HIV +1

 -2  visit this page (nbme24#46)
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Vincristine is a chemotherapeutic drug that stabilizes microtubules and prevents them from disassembling. The cell in the picture is stuck in anaphase, with microtubules attached to its chromosomes, unable to pull them apart because it cannot disassemble its microtubules.

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vshummy  So I get that by process of elimination cyclophosphamide, cyclosporine, doxorubicin, and 5-fluorouracil are not related to microtubules but vincristine in First Aid 2019 says it prevents microtubule formation, doesnโ€™t stabilize it because the one that stabilizes microtubules is paclitaxel. +1
vshummy  Okay, I realize now- the picture is stuck in metaphase, not anaphase. Both paclitaxel and vincristine stop the cell in metaphase but by two different mechanisms. Vincristine prevents mitotic *spindle* formation while paclitaxel prevents mitotic spindle *breakdown*. Mitotic spindle is needed to pull the chromosomes apart before anaphase begins. +16
azibird  No, I think you were right to begin with. Without spindle formation the cell should be stuck in prophase (vincristine). Without breakdown it should be stuck in metaphase (paclitaxel). Metaphase is shown here with spindle fully formed, so it should be paclitaxel. +
sars  I agree with the logic stated above. It could also be that the researchers added Drug X later on in M-phase, so therefore maybe the microtubules aren't even fully formed to fully reach metaphase. I think they're harping on "pick the best answer" +
sars  I agree with the logic stated above. It could also be that the researchers added Drug X later on in M-phase, so therefore maybe the microtubules aren't even fully formed to fully reach metaphase. I think they're harping on "pick the best answer" +

 +9  visit this page (nbme24#1)
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Question is basically asking what are the substrates used the first step in heme synthesis. In that step, glycine and succinyl CoA are combined to make aminolevulinic acid.

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sunshinesweetheart  p 417 FA 2019 +3
drschmoctor  p 425 FA2020 +
madamestep  NBME sure does fucking love heme +

 +5  visit this page (nbme24#32)
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HMG CoA Reductase inhibitors prevent the liver from synthesizing its own cholesterol. In order to maintain its need for cholesterol, the liver has no choice by to increase its LDL receptor expression in order to take cholesterol from the blood.

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suckitnbme  Not sure why NBME felt like they needed two questions on statin MOA on this form. +9
makinallkindzofgainz  because they didn't even realize it because they make insanely low effort practice exams with awful formatting and vague vignettes, yet here we are paying 60 bucks a pop for "high quality" exams, gimme a break. ok i'm done venting +6
madden875  stop whining. no one asked you to buy the exam^ +5
neoamin  Why does anyone scramble this site? >< +2
neoamin  and how about lipoprotein lipase? +
jaramaiha  enhanced LPL is done through Fibrates. +

 +6  visit this page (nbme24#28)
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The "likelihood of missing an association" refers to Type II error. The risk of Type II error is represented by beta. This could be confused with power, which is 1 - beta.

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usmleuser007  Just rereading this question without the stress, i got it quickly! Could't believe i missed something as simple as this. +4
snripper  Can't believe I spent 5 minutes on this and still got it wrong lmao. I was like, "it can't be 90% chance of missing an association, that's way too high." But I picked it nontheless... +2
failingnbme  I am just dumb +1
hunter_dr  Picked 90% first, thinking that the question always ask about power and why would they give the answer in the question stem and then trusted by guts and changed it to 10%. +

 +5  visit this page (nbme24#14)
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Specificity is equal to the number of true negative tests over the number of true negatives plus false positives:

Spec = TN /(TN + FP)

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 +9  visit this page (nbme24#50)
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This patient shows signs of cirrhosis, which is likely associated with portal hypertension. Portal hypertension will cause increased pressure in all veins draining into the portal vein, and can cause bulging of these veins at areas where they meet those that drain to the vena cava. One area is the rectum and anus, where the superior rectal vein (from the portal system) meets up with the middle and inferior rectal veins (which drain to the caval system). Increased pressure in the superior rectal vein will cause hemorrhoids at this location.

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 +6  visit this page (nbme24#14)
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In SIADH, the excessive ADH causes the collecting duct of the kidney to reabsorb huge amounts of water that it should normally excrete. That means that the plasma will now have much more water relative to solute (low osmolality) and the urine will have much more salt relative to water (higher osmolality).

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frijoles  So potassium does not become diluted in SIADH? +1
ruready4this  I feel like I was overthinking this question so much for some reason!! C definitely makes the most sense but I was also wondering what would happen to potassium. Then I was thinking maybe the excess ADH would suppress aldosterone secretion and serum potassium concentration would actually be higher +1
peridot  @frijoles Aldosterone can adjust the K+ levels: too much water --> less aldosterone --> no excretion of K+, so this helps retain the K+ to a normal level. However, less aldosterone also means --> more excretion of Na+, so the hyponatremia is not corrected. +1

 +6  visit this page (nbme24#47)
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The most important ethical principle that supersedes all others is autonomy. From an ethical standpoint, this patient has the right to refuse further treatment as he is mentally competent, in this case in the form of having the respiratory removed. From a legal standpoint, the physician is allowed to discontinue treatment for a patient if that is what the patient wants. This is different from situations of physician assisted suicide, which is more complicated and has variable ethics and legality.

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johnson  No - treatment is being withdrawn per the mentally competent patient's wishes. m-ice explained it well. +4
johnson  No - treatment is being withdrawn per the mentally competent patient's wishes. m-ice explained it well. +1
johnson  No - treatment is being withdrawn per the mentally competent patient's wishes. m-ice explained it well. +1
proteinbound123  In Physician-Assisted Suicide, the patient should be deemed โ€œterminally illโ€ and โ€œmentally competentโ€ (by 2 different doctors) with less than 6 months to live (with or without treatment), he requests (written request, done twice, 15 -day interval) assistance to die and the doctor prescribes a lethal dose of a medication for the patient. If, in the meantime, the patient develops a life-threatening acute problem and requests the doctor to withhold or withdraw treatment, by the Principle of Autonomy the doctor should proceed as the patient wants. In fact, by the Principle of Autonomy, any competent patient has a right to refuse treatment. This concept is supported not only by the ethical principle of autonomy but also by U.S. statutes, regulations and case law. Competent adults can refuse care even if the care would likely save or prolong the patient's life. +2

 +16  visit this page (nbme24#17)
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All of the features described of this patient would be expected of a 68-year-old man. Shorter, less intense orgasms, as well as increased time needed between sex could be related to a slight drop in testosterone with age. However, he continues to grow hair well (feet and toes), implying that he hasn't dramatically lost testosterone production. His prostate is slightly enlarged, which could imply benign prostatic hyperplasia, but this should not directly impact his sexual function.

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cassdawg  ^BPH threw me off: he probably does have BPH (slightly elevated PSA and diffusely enlarged prostate, common in men above 50), but BPH does not typically cause sexual dysfunction as described. BPH is more associated with urinary retention and UTI, and when it does cause sexual dysfunction urinary symptoms would be concurrently present (https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC1473005/ and FA2020 p654). +8
mikestix96  Normal hair growth on the toes could also imply that its not a vascular cause of decreased sexual performance (I.e. PAD with fine distal hairs) +4
bfinard1  What about the fact that it all started when he began dating the 40 year old woman 1 year ago? +
hivwizard  He says "his orgasms are shorter & he has to wait 2 or 3 hours before having sex AGAIN." when I read this I assumed that he doesn't have any psychological issues when it comes to having sex with this lady (my guy isn't scared) as well as they go multiple rounds +2

 +2  visit this page (nbme24#19)
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The patient in this question has cluster headaches. These headaches can be differentiated from migraines and tension headaches, as they tend to come in episodes across several years, with absent periods in between. Cluster headaches are often described as excruciatingly painful (sometimes called "suicide headaches").

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 +6  visit this page (nbme24#41)
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Misoprostol is a prostaglandin analog (PGE2) that acts on the stomach to promote mucus protection of the stomach lining, but also acts in the uterus to encourage contraction, which makes it useful for abortion.

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usmile1  perfect except it is a PGE1 analog, not 2 +6
krewfoo99  PGE2 will increase uterine tone (Pg. 270 FA 2018) +1
drmohandes  Misoprostol prevents NSAID-induced peptic ulcers. Side-effect: also gets rid of baby. +3

 +11  visit this page (nbme24#46)
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This girl has malignant hyperthermia, a dangerous adverse effect of some anesthestic agents characterized by sudden high fever and rhabdomyolysis. The only drug among this list that can cause malignant hyperthermia is succinylcholine. The other drugs that cause malignant hyperthermia are the halonated gases (flurane, sevoflurane, etc.), but nitrous oxide does not cause it.

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 +9  visit this page (nbme24#12)
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HMG CoA reductase inhibitors block the ability of the body to produce its own cholesterol. The liver, unable to make its own cholesterol and still needing to do its job of making lipoproteins, needs to get it from somewhere. So, the liver increases expression of LDL receptors to take more LDL out of the blood for repackaging.

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an_improved_me  just a quick addition: LDL is the main lipoprotein carrying cholesterl, hence the liver's selective increase in LDL receptors +2

 +12  visit this page (nbme24#29)
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The jaw pain and headaches in an older woman are worrisome for Temporal Arteritis. This is a vasculitis, which could be best identified by determining the erythrocyte sedimentation rate.

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vsn001  definitely was tryna look to biopsy :'( +1
unknown001  you were still more reasonable, i played the role of a so called sophisticated physiocian and went straight for MRI +

 +8  visit this page (nbme24#19)
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The patient needs medical attention immediately, which eliminates obtaining a court order, or transferring her. A nurse does not have the same training and qualifications as a physician, so it would be inappropriate to ask them to examine the patient. Asking the hospital chaplain again could be inappropriate, and would take more time. Therefore, the best option among those given is to ask the patient if she will allow with her husband present.

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sympathetikey  Garbage question. +71
masonkingcobra  So two men is better than one apparently +33
zoggybiscuits  GarBAGE! ? +2
bigjimbo  gรกrbรกgรฉ +5
fulminant_life  this question is garbage. She doesnt want to be examined by a male how would the presence of her husband make any difference in that respect? +17
dr.xx  I guess this is a garbage question because what hospital, even small and rural, does not have a female physician on staff. NBME take notice -- this is the 2010s not 1970s. https://images.app.goo.gl/xBL4cK31ta7nG4L39 +11
medpsychosis  The question here focuses on a specific issue which is the patient's religious conservative beliefs vs. urgency of the situation. A physician is required to respect the patient's autonomy while also balancing between beneficence and non-maleficence. The answer choice where the physician asks the patient if it would be ok to perform the exam with the husband present is an attempt to respect the conservative religious belief of the patient (not being exposed or alone with another man in the absence of her husband) while also allowing the physician to provide necessary medical treatment that could be life saving for her and or the child. Again, this allows for the patient to practice autonomy as she has the right to say no. +21
sahusema  I showed this question to my parents and they said "this is the kind of stuff you study all day?" smh +29
sherry  I totally agree this is a garbage question. I personally think there is more garbage question on new NBME forms than the previous ones...they can argue in any way. I feel like they were just trying to make people struggle on bad options when everybody knows what they were trying to ask. +1
niboonsh  This question is a3othobillah +11
sunshinesweetheart  this question is really not that garbage....actually easy points I was grateful for... yall are just clearly ignorant about Islam. educate yourselves, brethren, just as this exam is trying to get you to do. but yeah I agree there should be an option for female physician lol +9
drmohandes  I think this NBME24 is a waste of $60. On one hand we have these types of questions, that have 0 connection to our week-month-year-long studying. On the other hand we have "Synaptobrevin" instead of SNARE, because f*ck coming up with good questions. +15
myoclonictonicbionic  @sunshinesweetheart I actually have studied the religion tremendously and there a clear consensus among all Muslims that in the case of an emergency, it is completely allowed to have someone from the opposite gender examine you. I think this actually represents how ignorant the exam writers are of Islam. +16
korahelqadam  All it takes is one NBME question concerning muslims for the Islamophobia to jump out I guess +3
sars  This is a very fair question. I agree with sunshinesweetheart above. That is all. +2
wrongcareer69  Garbage question +1
alimd  well we should wait for the question "if a man shouts I CANT BREATHE with a police knee on his neck, what is your next step? Ans- wait 8 minutes." +3
beto  okay, touch me when my husband looks. are they preparing for threesome?? fckn question +
fatboyslim  I'm a Muslim man and I got it wrong. I chose B lol. I thought by her saying I don't want to be examined by a man stays true regardless of whether her husband is there to not. I guess it doesn't hurt to ask her what would make her feel more comfortable if it allows a male doc to examine her. +

 +7  visit this page (nbme24#1)
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This girl has chronic granulomatous disease, in which the immune system cannot properly form reactive oxygen species needed to kill phagocytosed organisms. This is especially bad when dealing with catalase positive organisms (like Staph), because these organisms already use catalase to break down reactive oxygen species. The most common cause of this condition is a mutation in NADPH oxidase, responsible for the generation of the superoxide radical.

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et-tu-bromocriptine  To add on: If neutrophils don't have access to NADPH oxidase, they can still use the bacteria's own hydrogen peroxidase to create ROS and kill the bacteria; however, catalase + organisms will not have this hydrogen peroxidase available (because catalase converts hydrogen peroxidase to O2 and water). So then the neutrophils are screwed and have no way of creating ROS. +9
yousif7000  the fact that I chose catalase I'm laughing so hard right now +2
clear  you are not alone +

 +8  visit this page (nbme24#41)
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Tetrodotoxin, found in puffer fish, inhibits sodium channels. This prevents depolarization of cardiac muscle and neurons, which leads to death if consumed in high enough quantity. The symptoms are vague (nausea, diarrhea, paresthesia), so questions will need to give some form of history about eating at a Japanese restaurant or eating pufferfish to give you a big hint. There is unfortunately not treatment.

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 +2  visit this page (nbme24#50)
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Case series is a study in which the researchers present the history and treatment of a small group of similar patients, without describing any sorting into groups or randomization.

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drmomo  only 3 patients +1
usmile1  uggghhh not in FA ... +

 +3  visit this page (nbme24#40)
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This boy has meningitis caused by Strep pneumoniae, the most common cause of infectious meningitis in general. The vaccine for Strep pneumo is a polysaccharide protein conjugate vaccine. The other major bacteria with a vaccine like this is H. influenzae.

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usmile1  also the meningococcal vaccine! +3

 +6  visit this page (nbme24#18)
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Competitive inhibitors increase the Km of the substrate. The Km represents how easily a substrate can bind the active site, with a lower Km representing easy binding, and a higher Km meaning more difficult. If you add a competitive inhibitor, like ethanol in this case, it makes it more difficult for the methanol to bind the active site, because it must compete with the ethanol.

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deathbystep1  but how is ethanol a "inhibitor" of alcohol dehydrogenase? isnt the concept that both ethanol and methanol compete for the same binding site of alcohol dehydrogenase and hence ethanol displaces methanol preventing its metabolism? if ethanol were to be a inhibitor it would have to shut off the enzyme, which is does not. +1
krewfoo99  @deathbystep1 Competitive inhibitor simply means increasing concentration of a particular substrate will allow more binding of the substrate to the enzyme. Thus the substrate with the higher concentration will competitive inhibit the other substrate by binding to the enzyme. It dosent necessarily shut off the enzyme +7

 +1  visit this page (nbme24#28)
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Dysmetria is the lack of coordination of intended movements. Normally these movements are coordinated by the cerebellum. This is located specifically on the man's right side, not both sides, so only one lobe will be injured.

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 +4  visit this page (nbme24#12)
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This woman has a lot of signs that point toward an intestinal parasitic infection: recent travel to Papua New Guinea, cough and alveolar infiltrates, high eosinophil count, and a stool sample that has a worm in it. Most likely the patient has a Strongyloides infection, as this is the intestinal parasite that shows larva on stool sample. Basically all intestinal parasites can be treated with Bendazole drugs, such as Thiabendazole. Praziquantel would be more appropriate for a worm or liver fluke infection.

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fulminant_life  just to add to the explanation above," cutaneous larva currens" is a specific finding for strongyloides. Also the picture they used is the exact same one on wikipedia lol +10
yb_26  they really should add Wikipedia in the list of top-rated review resources with A+ level of recommendation in FA2020))) +12
usmile1  also a side note: cutaneous larva CURRENS is pathognomonic for strongyloides whereas Cutaneous larva MIGRANS is for ancylostoma braziliense or nectar Americanus +7
solgabrielamoreno  FA 2019 pg 159 . Bendazoles because worms are bendy. (Treatment for roundworms) Praziquantel is for Cysticercosis (Taenia Solium) and Diphyllobothrium Latum Mefloquine : treats malaria Hydroxycloroquine: treats Malaraia, also RA & Lupus (immunisuppresive & anti-parasite) Dexamethasone: Steroid for inflammation +2
abhishek021196  FA20 says Ivermectin OR Bendazoles for Strogyloides, so in a future question, if Ivermectin is listed, that could be the right answer for this as well. +3
jurrutia  When in doubt, pick a bendazole +
jurrutia  When in doubt, pick a bendazole +

 +16  visit this page (nbme24#47)
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The patient states that she does not want a hormonal form of birth control. So, the question is really asking which of the non-hormonal options is most effective. The tricky part here, I think, is that the question makes you want to not pick IUD, because many IUDs are hormonally based. However, a non-hormonal IUD, like a copper IUD, is still more effective than the other options listed.

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bullshitusmle  copper intrauterine devices are hormon free FA2017 page 622 +2
medguru2295  they needed to specifiy. I eliminated IUD bc patient states no hormones. +1
abhishek021196  The question doesnt make sense. IUDs are typically contraindicated in nullipara because of increased risk of expulsion and intractable abdominal pain, among other things such as perforation. The pt is 22, likely to be a nullipara. Why cant we prescribe a diaphragm instead which is a non hormonal method too, and remove the vaguity of hormonal vs non hormonal IUD? :/ +4
123ojm  in practice many nullparious women have IUDs. I think this question was seeing whether you knew that some forms of IUDs are non-hormonal and that the other methods are far less effective, +1
covid  IUDs are definitely not contraindicated in nulliparous women. +5
neurotic999  Although all the above comments are valid, I think the point to be focused on was the patient asking for the 'most effective' alternative. Even I was leaning toward diaphragm considering she's a young patient, but I didn't feel like it fit the description of being most effective. Guess it's one of those questions where nbme expects you to pick up on subtle hints/read their minds and forego practicality altogether. +1

 +9  visit this page (nbme24#32)
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This girl has Mono caused by Epstein-Barr Virus. The symptoms are relatively vague, but lymphadenopathy like this would be common for Mono. The CBC shows elevated lymphocytes, implying this is not a bacterial illness, so viral is likely. Combined with the lymphadenopathy, this makes us worry about Mono. The Mono-Spot test for EBV is what the question is referring to when describing the sheep erythrocytes agglutinating. From there, this question requires that you know that in EBV infection, EBV infects B cells, but does not cause them to become abnormal. Instead, CD8 cells, which are actively trying to kill the B cells, become abnormal.

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medskool123  NBME does trick now and then.. when they zig you zag. then when you think they are going to zag, they zig just to destroy yourself confidence. +18
kylemax  The abnormal T-cells are known as Downey type II cells (Sketchy) +4
haliburton  I was recognized EBV, then knew EBV infects Bc, and the atypical lymphocytes are Tc. Then I said CD8 are MHC1 for virii, and bingo bango, boom. +6
trichotillomaniac  congrats you played yourself +3
lilyo  Soooooooo EBV infested B- cells is not considered atypical WTFF?? +
med4fun  They are atypical b/c usually you do not see a super high amount of CD8+ in peripheral blood. Now there are a ton to try to stop the infected cells. +1
aneurysmclip  oh and primary CNS lymphoma caused by EBV has T cells NOT B cells. I just try to remember the peripheral blood has atypical lymphocytes which are CD8+ T cells, and the CNS lymphoma is the opposite, ie; B cells +

 +8  visit this page (nbme24#17)
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All HOX genes are transcription factors that help regulate body layout and different expression of genes for each body segment.

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sunshinesweetheart  I got this one right but wasn't exactly sure how to rule out 'translation'. I guess just because we're talking about a gene i.e. trasncription and not miRNA i.e. post-translational modifiers? +
sars  Hox (homeodomain) genes code for homeodomain proteins which are specific transcription factors (bind to enhancers, making these activators). They promote transcription of certain genes involved in development. Thanks so much +2

 +4  visit this page (nbme24#10)
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This question only concerns women in the 50-54 age group. The group has a mean of 246 and standard deviation of 50. Therefore, all those with values greater than 296 are all those above one standard deviation. 2/3 of all values on a normal distribution are within one standard deviation in either direction. Therefore, 1/3 are outside of this in either direction, meaning 1/3 of women have a value less than 196 or greater than 296. If we split that in half to only choose those greater than 296, we get 1/6 women, which is about 16%.

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guillo12  Sorry, but there is not other way that I can understand this? +2
fulminant_life  @guillo12 basically 67% fall within 1 sd. That means that 33% are +/- >1sd. So taking only those with above 296, you only look at those >1sd above the mean which is 16.5% . The other 16.5% are those >1sd below the mean. +12
guillo12  Thank you!!! @fulminant_life +

 +2  visit this page (nbme24#6)
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This patient has a gallstone lodged in the common bile duct. Therefore, the markers most likely to be elevated is something from the biliary tract, the best of which is alkaline phosphatase. There could potentially be elevations in AST and ALT, but this is not the MOST likely answer. Unconjugated bilirubin is not a good answer, because the liver can still conjugate all bilirubin, it just has issues now excreting that conjugated form. So the woman's CONJUGATED bilirubin is more likely to be elevated.

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 +7  visit this page (nbme24#27)
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Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by a desire for social relationships, but a fear of being rejected or feeling inadequate for others. This is different from Schizoid, because Schizoid individuals do not desire relationships with others, and want to remain alone. The trickiest differentiation might be between Avoidant and Schizotypal, but Schizotypal individuals tend to remain isolated because of odd thinking, or "magical beliefs".

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doso2222  ShizoTYPal = odd TYPe +




Subcomments ...

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Can anybody explain this one? I put repeated tests because I assumed an 83-year-old woman is an unusual demographic for syphilis.

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m-ice  83 might seem an uncommon age, but we don't know for sure her sexual history. She only recently (8 months ago) started showing some signs of mild cognitive impairment. She has all these results implying that she has syphilis, so the most likely answer is that she has syphilis, so we should speak to her privately about her sexual history. The tests don't necessarily means she got syphilis very recently, it's possible she's had syphilis for a while and never got treated. +5
mousie  I understand that she could possibly have syphilis but I also put repeat tests because I know there are a few things that can cause false positive VRDLs but if she also has a + RPR does this make a FP less likely? And also if she has mild cognitive impairment you still discuss with her not her daughter correct ...? +4
m-ice  This definitely could be a false positive, but before we want to consider it to be a false positive, we should talk to the patient about it privately. Assuming that it's a false positive before asking the patient about it could delay treatment of her syphilis. There's a chance she didn't want to disclose her sexual history in front of her daughter or maybe she was embarrassed or didn't think it was important to mention. And you're absolutely right, she only has mild cognitive impairment, so we most definitely should talk to the patient alone without her daughter first. +4
seagull  She has dementia. She doesn't have the capacity to determine her own care (23/20 MME). I feel the daughter should have the word on the care since Grandma likely doesn't have the capacity to understand her actions. +5
sajaqua1  From what I remember, dementia is typically a combination of impaired memory *and* impaired thought processes. There is nothing to indicate that the patient has impaired thought processes, and the memory impairment is only mild. The patient can still reasonably said to be competent, and so her private information should be discussed with her alone. +12
yotsubato  Elder care homes or elderly communities actually have a high rate of STDs. Turns out, when you put a bunch of divorced/widowed adults together in a community they have sex. +12
yotsubato  Additionally, you should respect the privacy of a competent adult with "Mild memory" impairment. I know I could have mild memory impairment considering the crap I forget studying for step 1 +14
drdoom  @seagull dementia โ‰  absence of competence -- the two are separate concepts and have to be evaluated independently. see https://meshb.nlm.nih.gov/record/ui?ui=D003704 and https://meshb.nlm.nih.gov/record/ui?ui=D016743 +3
wowo  also important to note, d) repeated tests is also incorrect as the microhemagglutination assay is a confirmatory treponemal test (along the same lines as FTA-ABS) https://www.uofmhealth.org/health-library/hw5839 +5
sunshinesweetheart  also.... I think we can assume that "repeated tests" means repeat VRDL, not "additional tests to rule out false positives" +2
imtiredofstudying  the entire point of this question is that when you see an STD in an unexpected demographic (children, elderly), THINK SEXUAL ABUSE +


submitted by iguzman2(4), visit this page
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Aren't M1 receptors found in the brain and are responsible for motion sickness?

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m-ice  M1 receptors are for sure the major muscarinic receptor type found in the CNS, but M3 receptors are the muscarinic subtype involved in vomiting controlled by the CNS. This is definitely a random fact, but I think they also wanted you to eliminate all other options. Targeting the sympathetic system (options A and B) won't make a difference. NMDA receptors are a major receptor throughout the CNS, but they're not a target of antihistamines, and neither are serotonin receptors. We know that antihistamines target histamine and muscarinic receptors, but the H2 histamine receptor is responsible for gastrin secretion in the stomach, so the answer must be antagonism of M3 receptors. +8
dorsal_vein  ^ First generation antihistamines definitely antagonize serotonin receptors within the CNS, which can cause weight gain and increase appetite. However, this plays little role in motion sickness. +15
mumenrider4ever  That is confusing because scopolamine (anti-muscarinic used to treat motion sickness) is an M1 receptor antagonist +4
pelparente  So according to amboss scopolamine is a nonspecific antiemetic. I think Sketchy probably just confused everyone. https://www.amboss.com/us/knowledge/Antiemetics +5
osteopathnproud  I had @m-ice logic down to H2 and M3, then from base knowledge, I was like H2 gastrin secretion or M3 contraction of smooth muscle like bladder... stomach stuff is for me so H2... I do not know how you can get this question without knowing that M3 has to do with motion sickness +
mariame  First generation antihistamine are used for extrapyramidal sx in parkinson, and in elderly they have anticholinergic side effects. So I think you could also use this information to answer the question. It antagonizes H1 receptors and also M receptors. +


submitted by neonem(630), visit this page
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I think the reason you need to inject gonadotropins in this case is because you need FSH and LH to produce sperm. FSH stimulates the sertoli cells, which line the seminiferous tubules and help the spermatogonia produce spermatocytes. Testosterone is a product of Leydig cells when they're stimulated by LH, so injecting testosterone would bypass that step but it wouldn't really help with spermatogenesis. However, injecting GnRH also doesn't doesn't really help because you need that pulsatile GnRH at night to make LH and FSH whereas long-acting GnRH analogs actually decrease LH and FSH production.

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m-ice  Adding on to the answer above. I was stuck between the gonadotropin injections and clomiphene. But, clomiphene acts to increase activity of GnRH which then exerts its effects on the pituitary. The man in this question had his pituitary removed because of an adenoma. So, he needs the FSH and LH directly. +28
mousie  agree! Removal of the pituitary would case a deficit in Gonadotropins (LH, FSH) and therefore nothing to simulate the testes to make sperm... replacing the T with a patch would not stimulate the testes to make sperm and if his axis was intact (although its not) this would further down regulate the production of sperm. I eliminated Clomiphene because if he dosent have T to induce negative influence on the hypothalamus he will have increased GnRH and further increasing it with Clomiphene would not correct the deficit in Gonadotropins. +5
neonem  Oh duh... that makes much more sense. Thanks! P.s. I thought clomiphene was more of a fertility drug for women, since it blocks negative feedback of estrogen on the hypothalamus/pituitary. But in men the system is under feedback due to testosterone, not estrogen. +6
utap2001  clomiphene is estrogen analogue, competitive antagonist, not effective in man. 2. The mechanism of clomiphene is feedback increase of GnRH-> increase FSH,LH, not effective in pituitary removal patient. +1


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Can anybody explain this one? I put repeated tests because I assumed an 83-year-old woman is an unusual demographic for syphilis.

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m-ice  83 might seem an uncommon age, but we don't know for sure her sexual history. She only recently (8 months ago) started showing some signs of mild cognitive impairment. She has all these results implying that she has syphilis, so the most likely answer is that she has syphilis, so we should speak to her privately about her sexual history. The tests don't necessarily means she got syphilis very recently, it's possible she's had syphilis for a while and never got treated. +5
mousie  I understand that she could possibly have syphilis but I also put repeat tests because I know there are a few things that can cause false positive VRDLs but if she also has a + RPR does this make a FP less likely? And also if she has mild cognitive impairment you still discuss with her not her daughter correct ...? +4
m-ice  This definitely could be a false positive, but before we want to consider it to be a false positive, we should talk to the patient about it privately. Assuming that it's a false positive before asking the patient about it could delay treatment of her syphilis. There's a chance she didn't want to disclose her sexual history in front of her daughter or maybe she was embarrassed or didn't think it was important to mention. And you're absolutely right, she only has mild cognitive impairment, so we most definitely should talk to the patient alone without her daughter first. +4
seagull  She has dementia. She doesn't have the capacity to determine her own care (23/20 MME). I feel the daughter should have the word on the care since Grandma likely doesn't have the capacity to understand her actions. +5
sajaqua1  From what I remember, dementia is typically a combination of impaired memory *and* impaired thought processes. There is nothing to indicate that the patient has impaired thought processes, and the memory impairment is only mild. The patient can still reasonably said to be competent, and so her private information should be discussed with her alone. +12
yotsubato  Elder care homes or elderly communities actually have a high rate of STDs. Turns out, when you put a bunch of divorced/widowed adults together in a community they have sex. +12
yotsubato  Additionally, you should respect the privacy of a competent adult with "Mild memory" impairment. I know I could have mild memory impairment considering the crap I forget studying for step 1 +14
drdoom  @seagull dementia โ‰  absence of competence -- the two are separate concepts and have to be evaluated independently. see https://meshb.nlm.nih.gov/record/ui?ui=D003704 and https://meshb.nlm.nih.gov/record/ui?ui=D016743 +3
wowo  also important to note, d) repeated tests is also incorrect as the microhemagglutination assay is a confirmatory treponemal test (along the same lines as FTA-ABS) https://www.uofmhealth.org/health-library/hw5839 +5
sunshinesweetheart  also.... I think we can assume that "repeated tests" means repeat VRDL, not "additional tests to rule out false positives" +2
imtiredofstudying  the entire point of this question is that when you see an STD in an unexpected demographic (children, elderly), THINK SEXUAL ABUSE +


submitted by hyoid(46), visit this page
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Can someone explain this oneโ€“โ€“I didn't really know what to make of the lab values. Clearly she was taking too much insulin, but how can you differentiate factitious disorder from a type 1 diabetic who takes too much of their insulin dose?

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m-ice  I think the trick here is that they don't mention that the daughter has a history of Type 1 DM, so she has no reason to be taking insulin at all. She's definitely receiving insulin, but we don't have any history implying she's a type 1 diabetic. That, combined with the fact that there have been multiple episodes like this one, favors that the mother is giving the daughter insulin when she doesn't need it. +21
sajaqua1  C-peptide is produce by endogenous insulin, but is not part of exogenous insulin. She has elevated insulin, with low C-peptide, so she is receiving too much exogenous insulin. A history of recurrent episodes this year implies a behavioral issue; Factitious disorder imposed on another (also called Munchausen syndrome by proxy). +8


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