Welcome to m-iceโs page.
Contributor score: 370
Comments ...
mumenrider4ever
Small edit, achondroplasia is due to constitutive activation (not inactivation) of FGFR3, which inhibits chondrocyte proliferation
+11
sajaqua1
Not only is their WBC count low, it is not uniform. If we assume a minimum normal WBC count of 5000 cells/mL^3, and a regular range of ~60% neutrophils, then normally a person should have ~3,000 neutrophils/mL^3. This patient has a total of 2000 cells/mL^3, with 1,800 neutrophils/mL^3. Their lymphocytes and macrophages have been whiped out. This is best accounted for by HIV.
+47
koftawesa
CXR sounded like pneumocystis jiroveci which HIV patients are at high risk for- infections like these are usually the way HIV patients find out they have HIV
+1
vshummy
So I get that by process of elimination cyclophosphamide, cyclosporine, doxorubicin, and 5-fluorouracil are not related to microtubules but vincristine in First Aid 2019 says it prevents microtubule formation, doesnโt stabilize it because the one that stabilizes microtubules is paclitaxel.
+1
vshummy
Okay, I realize now- the picture is stuck in metaphase, not anaphase. Both paclitaxel and vincristine stop the cell in metaphase but by two different mechanisms. Vincristine prevents mitotic *spindle* formation while paclitaxel prevents mitotic spindle *breakdown*. Mitotic spindle is needed to pull the chromosomes apart before anaphase begins.
+16
azibird
No, I think you were right to begin with. Without spindle formation the cell should be stuck in prophase (vincristine). Without breakdown it should be stuck in metaphase (paclitaxel). Metaphase is shown here with spindle fully formed, so it should be paclitaxel.
+
sars
I agree with the logic stated above. It could also be that the researchers added Drug X later on in M-phase, so therefore maybe the microtubules aren't even fully formed to fully reach metaphase. I think they're harping on "pick the best answer"
+
sars
I agree with the logic stated above. It could also be that the researchers added Drug X later on in M-phase, so therefore maybe the microtubules aren't even fully formed to fully reach metaphase. I think they're harping on "pick the best answer"
+
suckitnbme
Not sure why NBME felt like they needed two questions on statin MOA on this form.
+9
makinallkindzofgainz
because they didn't even realize it because they make insanely low effort practice exams with awful formatting and vague vignettes, yet here we are paying 60 bucks a pop for "high quality" exams, gimme a break. ok i'm done venting
+6
madden875
stop whining. no one asked you to buy the exam^
+5
neoamin
Why does anyone scramble this site? ><
+2
neoamin
and how about lipoprotein lipase?
+
jaramaiha
enhanced LPL is done through Fibrates.
+
usmleuser007
Just rereading this question without the stress, i got it quickly! Could't believe i missed something as simple as this.
+4
snripper
Can't believe I spent 5 minutes on this and still got it wrong lmao.
I was like, "it can't be 90% chance of missing an association, that's way too high." But I picked it nontheless...
+2
hunter_dr
Picked 90% first, thinking that the question always ask about power and why would they give the answer in the question stem and then trusted by guts and changed it to 10%.
+
frijoles
So potassium does not become diluted in SIADH?
+1
ruready4this
I feel like I was overthinking this question so much for some reason!! C definitely makes the most sense but I was also wondering what would happen to potassium. Then I was thinking maybe the excess ADH would suppress aldosterone secretion and serum potassium concentration would actually be higher
+1
peridot
@frijoles Aldosterone can adjust the K+ levels: too much water --> less aldosterone --> no excretion of K+, so this helps retain the K+ to a normal level. However, less aldosterone also means --> more excretion of Na+, so the hyponatremia is not corrected.
+1
johnson
No - treatment is being withdrawn per the mentally competent patient's wishes. m-ice explained it well.
+4
johnson
No - treatment is being withdrawn per the mentally competent patient's wishes. m-ice explained it well.
+1
johnson
No - treatment is being withdrawn per the mentally competent patient's wishes. m-ice explained it well.
+1
proteinbound123
In Physician-Assisted Suicide, the patient should be deemed โterminally illโ and โmentally competentโ (by 2 different doctors) with less than 6 months to live (with or without treatment), he requests (written request, done twice, 15 -day interval) assistance to die and the doctor prescribes a lethal dose of a medication for the patient. If, in the meantime, the patient develops a life-threatening acute problem and requests the doctor to withhold or withdraw treatment, by the Principle of Autonomy the doctor should proceed as the patient wants. In fact, by the Principle of Autonomy, any competent patient has a right to refuse treatment. This concept is supported not only by the ethical principle of autonomy but also by U.S. statutes, regulations and case law. Competent adults can refuse care even if the care would likely save or prolong the patient's life.
+2
cassdawg
^BPH threw me off: he probably does have BPH (slightly elevated PSA and diffusely enlarged prostate, common in men above 50), but BPH does not typically cause sexual dysfunction as described. BPH is more associated with urinary retention and UTI, and when it does cause sexual dysfunction urinary symptoms would be concurrently present (https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC1473005/ and FA2020 p654).
+8
mikestix96
Normal hair growth on the toes could also imply that its not a vascular cause of decreased sexual performance (I.e. PAD with fine distal hairs)
+4
bfinard1
What about the fact that it all started when he began dating the 40 year old woman 1 year ago?
+
hivwizard
He says "his orgasms are shorter & he has to wait 2 or 3 hours before having sex AGAIN." when I read this I assumed that he doesn't have any psychological issues when it comes to having sex with this lady (my guy isn't scared) as well as they go multiple rounds
+2
usmile1
perfect except it is a PGE1 analog, not 2
+6
krewfoo99
PGE2 will increase uterine tone (Pg. 270 FA 2018)
+1
drmohandes
Misoprostol prevents NSAID-induced peptic ulcers. Side-effect: also gets rid of baby.
+3
an_improved_me
just a quick addition: LDL is the main lipoprotein carrying cholesterl, hence the liver's selective increase in LDL receptors
+2
vsn001
definitely was tryna look to biopsy :'(
+1
unknown001
you were still more reasonable, i played the role of a so called sophisticated physiocian and went straight for MRI
+
fulminant_life
this question is garbage. She doesnt want to be examined by a male how would the presence of her husband make any difference in that respect?
+17
medpsychosis
The question here focuses on a specific issue which is the patient's religious conservative beliefs vs. urgency of the situation. A physician is required to respect the patient's autonomy while also balancing between beneficence and non-maleficence. The answer choice where the physician asks the patient if it would be ok to perform the exam with the husband present is an attempt to respect the conservative religious belief of the patient (not being exposed or alone with another man in the absence of her husband) while also allowing the physician to provide necessary medical treatment that could be life saving for her and or the child. Again, this allows for the patient to practice autonomy as she has the right to say no.
+21
sahusema
I showed this question to my parents and they said "this is the kind of stuff you study all day?" smh
+29
sherry
I totally agree this is a garbage question. I personally think there is more garbage question on new NBME forms than the previous ones...they can argue in any way. I feel like they were just trying to make people struggle on bad options when everybody knows what they were trying to ask.
+1
niboonsh
This question is a3othobillah
+11
sunshinesweetheart
this question is really not that garbage....actually easy points I was grateful for... yall are just clearly ignorant about Islam. educate yourselves, brethren, just as this exam is trying to get you to do. but yeah I agree there should be an option for female physician lol
+9
drmohandes
I think this NBME24 is a waste of $60.
On one hand we have these types of questions, that have 0 connection to our week-month-year-long studying.
On the other hand we have "Synaptobrevin" instead of SNARE, because f*ck coming up with good questions.
+15
myoclonictonicbionic
@sunshinesweetheart I actually have studied the religion tremendously and there a clear consensus among all Muslims that in the case of an emergency, it is completely allowed to have someone from the opposite gender examine you. I think this actually represents how ignorant the exam writers are of Islam.
+16
korahelqadam
All it takes is one NBME question concerning muslims for the Islamophobia to jump out I guess
+3
sars
This is a very fair question. I agree with sunshinesweetheart above. That is all.
+2
alimd
well we should wait for the question "if a man shouts I CANT BREATHE with a police knee on his neck, what is your next step? Ans- wait 8 minutes."
+3
beto
okay, touch me when my husband looks. are they preparing for threesome?? fckn question
+
fatboyslim
I'm a Muslim man and I got it wrong. I chose B lol. I thought by her saying I don't want to be examined by a man stays true regardless of whether her husband is there to not. I guess it doesn't hurt to ask her what would make her feel more comfortable if it allows a male doc to examine her.
+
et-tu-bromocriptine
To add on: If neutrophils don't have access to NADPH oxidase, they can still use the bacteria's own hydrogen peroxidase to create ROS and kill the bacteria; however, catalase + organisms will not have this hydrogen peroxidase available (because catalase converts hydrogen peroxidase to O2 and water). So then the neutrophils are screwed and have no way of creating ROS.
+9
yousif7000
the fact that I chose catalase I'm laughing so hard right now
+2
clear
you are not alone
+
usmile1
also the meningococcal vaccine!
+3
deathbystep1
but how is ethanol a "inhibitor" of alcohol dehydrogenase? isnt the concept that both ethanol and methanol compete for the same binding site of alcohol dehydrogenase and hence ethanol displaces methanol preventing its metabolism? if ethanol were to be a inhibitor it would have to shut off the enzyme, which is does not.
+1
krewfoo99
@deathbystep1 Competitive inhibitor simply means increasing concentration of a particular substrate will allow more binding of the substrate to the enzyme. Thus the substrate with the higher concentration will competitive inhibit the other substrate by binding to the enzyme. It dosent necessarily shut off the enzyme
+7
fulminant_life
just to add to the explanation above," cutaneous larva currens" is a specific finding for strongyloides. Also the picture they used is the exact same one on wikipedia lol
+10
yb_26
they really should add Wikipedia in the list of top-rated review resources with A+ level of recommendation in FA2020)))
+12
usmile1
also a side note:
cutaneous larva CURRENS is pathognomonic for strongyloides whereas
Cutaneous larva MIGRANS is for ancylostoma braziliense or nectar Americanus
+7
solgabrielamoreno
FA 2019 pg 159 . Bendazoles because worms are bendy. (Treatment for roundworms)
Praziquantel is for Cysticercosis (Taenia Solium) and Diphyllobothrium Latum
Mefloquine : treats malaria
Hydroxycloroquine: treats Malaraia, also RA & Lupus (immunisuppresive & anti-parasite)
Dexamethasone: Steroid for inflammation
+2
abhishek021196
FA20 says Ivermectin OR Bendazoles for Strogyloides, so in a future question, if Ivermectin is listed, that could be the right answer for this as well.
+3
jurrutia
When in doubt, pick a bendazole
+
jurrutia
When in doubt, pick a bendazole
+
bullshitusmle
copper intrauterine devices are hormon free FA2017 page 622
+2
medguru2295
they needed to specifiy. I eliminated IUD bc patient states no hormones.
+1
abhishek021196
The question doesnt make sense. IUDs are typically contraindicated in nullipara because of increased risk of expulsion and intractable abdominal pain, among other things such as perforation. The pt is 22, likely to be a nullipara. Why cant we prescribe a diaphragm instead which is a non hormonal method too, and remove the vaguity of hormonal vs non hormonal IUD? :/
+4
123ojm
in practice many nullparious women have IUDs. I think this question was seeing whether you knew that some forms of IUDs are non-hormonal and that the other methods are far less effective,
+1
covid
IUDs are definitely not contraindicated in nulliparous women.
+5
neurotic999
Although all the above comments are valid, I think the point to be focused on was the patient asking for the 'most effective' alternative. Even I was leaning toward diaphragm considering she's a young patient, but I didn't feel like it fit the description of being most effective. Guess it's one of those questions where nbme expects you to pick up on subtle hints/read their minds and forego practicality altogether.
+1
medskool123
NBME does trick now and then.. when they zig you zag. then when you think they are going to zag, they zig just to destroy yourself confidence.
+18
kylemax
The abnormal T-cells are known as Downey type II cells (Sketchy)
+4
haliburton
I was recognized EBV, then knew EBV infects Bc, and the atypical lymphocytes are Tc. Then I said CD8 are MHC1 for virii, and bingo bango, boom.
+6
lilyo
Soooooooo EBV infested B- cells is not considered atypical WTFF??
+
med4fun
They are atypical b/c usually you do not see a super high amount of CD8+ in peripheral blood. Now there are a ton to try to stop the infected cells.
+1
aneurysmclip
oh and primary CNS lymphoma caused by EBV has T cells NOT B cells. I just try to remember the peripheral blood has atypical lymphocytes which are CD8+ T cells, and the CNS lymphoma is the opposite, ie; B cells
+
sunshinesweetheart
I got this one right but wasn't exactly sure how to rule out 'translation'. I guess just because we're talking about a gene i.e. trasncription and not miRNA i.e. post-translational modifiers?
+
sars
Hox (homeodomain) genes code for homeodomain proteins which are specific transcription factors (bind to enhancers, making these activators). They promote transcription of certain genes involved in development. Thanks so much
+2
guillo12
Sorry, but there is not other way that I can understand this?
+2
fulminant_life
@guillo12 basically 67% fall within 1 sd. That means that 33% are +/- >1sd. So taking only those with above 296, you only look at those >1sd above the mean which is 16.5% . The other 16.5% are those >1sd below the mean.
+12
Subcomments ...
m-ice
83 might seem an uncommon age, but we don't know for sure her sexual history. She only recently (8 months ago) started showing some signs of mild cognitive impairment. She has all these results implying that she has syphilis, so the most likely answer is that she has syphilis, so we should speak to her privately about her sexual history. The tests don't necessarily means she got syphilis very recently, it's possible she's had syphilis for a while and never got treated.
+5
mousie
I understand that she could possibly have syphilis but I also put repeat tests because I know there are a few things that can cause false positive VRDLs but if she also has a + RPR does this make a FP less likely? And also if she has mild cognitive impairment you still discuss with her not her daughter correct ...?
+4
m-ice
This definitely could be a false positive, but before we want to consider it to be a false positive, we should talk to the patient about it privately. Assuming that it's a false positive before asking the patient about it could delay treatment of her syphilis. There's a chance she didn't want to disclose her sexual history in front of her daughter or maybe she was embarrassed or didn't think it was important to mention.
And you're absolutely right, she only has mild cognitive impairment, so we most definitely should talk to the patient alone without her daughter first.
+4
seagull
She has dementia. She doesn't have the capacity to determine her own care (23/20 MME). I feel the daughter should have the word on the care since Grandma likely doesn't have the capacity to understand her actions.
+5
sajaqua1
From what I remember, dementia is typically a combination of impaired memory *and* impaired thought processes. There is nothing to indicate that the patient has impaired thought processes, and the memory impairment is only mild. The patient can still reasonably said to be competent, and so her private information should be discussed with her alone.
+12
yotsubato
Elder care homes or elderly communities actually have a high rate of STDs. Turns out, when you put a bunch of divorced/widowed adults together in a community they have sex.
+12
yotsubato
Additionally, you should respect the privacy of a competent adult with "Mild memory" impairment. I know I could have mild memory impairment considering the crap I forget studying for step 1
+14
sunshinesweetheart
also.... I think we can assume that "repeated tests" means repeat VRDL, not "additional tests to rule out false positives"
+2
imtiredofstudying
the entire point of this question is that when you see an STD in an unexpected demographic (children, elderly), THINK SEXUAL ABUSE
+
m-ice
M1 receptors are for sure the major muscarinic receptor type found in the CNS, but M3 receptors are the muscarinic subtype involved in vomiting controlled by the CNS. This is definitely a random fact, but I think they also wanted you to eliminate all other options. Targeting the sympathetic system (options A and B) won't make a difference. NMDA receptors are a major receptor throughout the CNS, but they're not a target of antihistamines, and neither are serotonin receptors. We know that antihistamines target histamine and muscarinic receptors, but the H2 histamine receptor is responsible for gastrin secretion in the stomach, so the answer must be antagonism of M3 receptors.
+8
dorsal_vein
^ First generation antihistamines definitely antagonize serotonin receptors within the CNS, which can cause weight gain and increase appetite. However, this plays little role in motion sickness.
+15
mumenrider4ever
That is confusing because scopolamine (anti-muscarinic used to treat motion sickness) is an M1 receptor antagonist
+4
osteopathnproud
I had @m-ice logic down to H2 and M3, then from base knowledge, I was like H2 gastrin secretion or M3 contraction of smooth muscle like bladder... stomach stuff is for me so H2... I do not know how you can get this question without knowing that M3 has to do with motion sickness
+
mariame
First generation antihistamine are used for extrapyramidal sx in parkinson, and in elderly they have anticholinergic side effects. So I think you could also use this information to answer the question. It antagonizes H1 receptors and also M receptors.
+
m-ice
Adding on to the answer above. I was stuck between the gonadotropin injections and clomiphene. But, clomiphene acts to increase activity of GnRH which then exerts its effects on the pituitary. The man in this question had his pituitary removed because of an adenoma. So, he needs the FSH and LH directly.
+28
mousie
agree!
Removal of the pituitary would case a deficit in Gonadotropins (LH, FSH) and therefore nothing to simulate the testes to make sperm... replacing the T with a patch would not stimulate the testes to make sperm and if his axis was intact (although its not) this would further down regulate the production of sperm. I eliminated Clomiphene because if he dosent have T to induce negative influence on the hypothalamus he will have increased GnRH and further increasing it with Clomiphene would not correct the deficit in Gonadotropins.
+5
neonem
Oh duh... that makes much more sense. Thanks! P.s. I thought clomiphene was more of a fertility drug for women, since it blocks negative feedback of estrogen on the hypothalamus/pituitary. But in men the system is under feedback due to testosterone, not estrogen.
+6
utap2001
clomiphene is estrogen analogue, competitive antagonist, not effective in man. 2. The mechanism of clomiphene is feedback increase of GnRH-> increase FSH,LH, not effective in pituitary removal patient.
+1
m-ice
83 might seem an uncommon age, but we don't know for sure her sexual history. She only recently (8 months ago) started showing some signs of mild cognitive impairment. She has all these results implying that she has syphilis, so the most likely answer is that she has syphilis, so we should speak to her privately about her sexual history. The tests don't necessarily means she got syphilis very recently, it's possible she's had syphilis for a while and never got treated.
+5
mousie
I understand that she could possibly have syphilis but I also put repeat tests because I know there are a few things that can cause false positive VRDLs but if she also has a + RPR does this make a FP less likely? And also if she has mild cognitive impairment you still discuss with her not her daughter correct ...?
+4
m-ice
This definitely could be a false positive, but before we want to consider it to be a false positive, we should talk to the patient about it privately. Assuming that it's a false positive before asking the patient about it could delay treatment of her syphilis. There's a chance she didn't want to disclose her sexual history in front of her daughter or maybe she was embarrassed or didn't think it was important to mention.
And you're absolutely right, she only has mild cognitive impairment, so we most definitely should talk to the patient alone without her daughter first.
+4
seagull
She has dementia. She doesn't have the capacity to determine her own care (23/20 MME). I feel the daughter should have the word on the care since Grandma likely doesn't have the capacity to understand her actions.
+5
sajaqua1
From what I remember, dementia is typically a combination of impaired memory *and* impaired thought processes. There is nothing to indicate that the patient has impaired thought processes, and the memory impairment is only mild. The patient can still reasonably said to be competent, and so her private information should be discussed with her alone.
+12
yotsubato
Elder care homes or elderly communities actually have a high rate of STDs. Turns out, when you put a bunch of divorced/widowed adults together in a community they have sex.
+12
yotsubato
Additionally, you should respect the privacy of a competent adult with "Mild memory" impairment. I know I could have mild memory impairment considering the crap I forget studying for step 1
+14
sunshinesweetheart
also.... I think we can assume that "repeated tests" means repeat VRDL, not "additional tests to rule out false positives"
+2
imtiredofstudying
the entire point of this question is that when you see an STD in an unexpected demographic (children, elderly), THINK SEXUAL ABUSE
+
m-ice
I think the trick here is that they don't mention that the daughter has a history of Type 1 DM, so she has no reason to be taking insulin at all. She's definitely receiving insulin, but we don't have any history implying she's a type 1 diabetic. That, combined with the fact that there have been multiple episodes like this one, favors that the mother is giving the daughter insulin when she doesn't need it.
+21
sajaqua1
C-peptide is produce by endogenous insulin, but is not part of exogenous insulin. She has elevated insulin, with low C-peptide, so she is receiving too much exogenous insulin. A history of recurrent episodes this year implies a behavioral issue; Factitious disorder imposed on another (also called Munchausen syndrome by proxy).
+8
This boy has achondroplasia, which is caused by an autosomal dominant mutation in Fibroblast Growth Factor Receptor 3. FGF signaling is needed for proper cartilage function, and without it, the long bones of the body will not grow because the growth plate (made of chondrocytes) does not function. However, bones that undergo membranous ossification, like the bones of the head, will grow normally. This results in the patient having short extremities with a normal size trunk and large head relative to the limbs.