I thought that the cognitive impairment could be the manifestation of neurosyphilis. In addition, the doctor should talk directly to the patient to check for sexual abuse.
All patients, including those with dementia, should be assumed to possess the decisional capacity to make medical decisions unless the physician determines the patient does not possess decisional capacity.
Can anybody explain this one? I put repeated tests because I assumed an 83-year-old woman is an unusual demographic for syphilis.
23 of 30 is mild dementia by DSM V , still has capacity to answer basic questions , and STD in childs and elderly ALWAYS think ABUSE FIRST
the main goal for this question is avoid discussing issues with relatives without the patientโs permission. but some people were deeply shocked to see that a grandmother has syphilis. Btw I leave a link of a research about Clinical Utility of the Mini-Mental Status Examination When Assessing Decision-Making Capacity. https://journals.sagepub.com/doi/abs/10.1177/0891988709342727
I think one of the confusions here is that the microhemagglutination assay doesn't necessarily indicate current infection with syphilis, because treponemal tests can stay positive even for years after treatment (https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2095002/) That in combo with the very low RPR titer could indicate treated syphilis. So really the best thing to do would be to ask the patient directly about it before you waste time doing possibly unnecessary testing (and I would definitely ask her directly since most people don't talk about their STIs with their children)
option B) (the correct option as per nbme) :the patient has a mini mental state of 23/30, so that should mean that she isn't capable of making her own decisions! so whats the point in talking to her privately without her daughter?
option A) is wrong because you cant just hide the diagnosis from the patient and share it with the family
option C & D)you cannot disregard the test or repeat the test as both the test are positive, RPR is a screening test with less specificity but microhemagglutination is a highly specific test so she definetly has syphillis!
option E) doesnt make sense because why would you do lumbar puncture for syphillis?!
i think they forgot to give an option F) just freakin treat her for syphillis!!!
submitted by โpeqmd(75)
question is asking what's the best next step not necessarily what is the best diagnostic step, which is somewhat of Step 2 rotation shelf question (for people who takes Step 1 after rotations). TLDR, best NEXT step is talk to her first at minimum you need to determine if she has capacity.
While the patient has pretty bad MMSE:
B. Is the best next step. You need to discuss with her first. => determine her decision making capacity => then proceed whether to discuss with her daughter (A).
Lumbar puncture is the best diagnostic step. However, in this question they're asking you what you need to do to even proceed to this step. I.e. get her capacity then you can proceed to lumbar. This is because lumbar puncture is more invasive and you'll need to assess capacity as well as get either her (if she has capacity) or daughter.