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@fulminant_life because the mean age is 3.8 with a standard deviation of 1.8. An age of onset of 9 years is nearly 3 standard deviations above the mean. Therefore, since we know +/- 2 SD covers 95% of the bell curve, it must be higher than that. The only option higher than 95% is 99%.
Yes 9.2 was the upper limit for 99% CI. I picked 95 first because i thought 2.5% would be out of this range. But changed ans because it should be less than 2.5% because 9.2 is so close to 9. Also they are asking CLOSEST to which of the following?
Anion Gap: Na - (Cl + HCO3) = normally around 10-12
good to know. I keep looking up the urine values but all it said was "varies", then I threw my computer and yelled "does that vary Mother F****ers. I do feel better now.
glad I wasn't the only one who got very pissed off at the urine values
Usually the first thing I look at is whether or not the Cl- is high. Generally if the Cl- is high its going to be a normal gap
i think they gave you the urine values bc you can calculate the URINE anion gap which is (Na + K - Cl). In this case the Urine Anion Gap is positive (5). Boards and Beyond mentions that a positive UAG is due to Renal Tubular Acidosis Type 1 (inability of alpha intercalated cells to secrete hydrogen ions). just another approach to answer this q
Actually diarrhea is the "D" in "HARDASS"(reason why I was stuck between Chron's and RTA). Ended up getting it right with RTA..
So the reason this is not Crohn's disease is actually what BnB explains in Renal Tubular acidosis video. Anytime there is a Metabolic Acidosis with intact kidney secretion of H+, the URINARY Anion gap (Na+K-Cl) is NEGATIVE. This is because the excess NH4 that is secreted into urine is combined with Cl-. Therefore, in Crohn's disease and Type 2 Renal Tubular Acidosis, the urinary anion gap is NEGATIVE.
In this question, the urinary anion gap is POSITIVE so this would be an example of Type 1 RTA because the kidney can not excrete H+.
I got it right by chance, definitely did not understand it in this much detail when I was answering it lol
just to add to the explanation above," cutaneous larva currens" is a specific finding for strongyloides. Also the picture they used is the exact same one on wikipedia lol
they really should add Wikipedia in the list of top-rated review resources with A+ level of recommendation in FA2020)))
also a side note:
cutaneous larva CURRENS is pathognomonic for strongyloides whereas
Cutaneous larva MIGRANS is for ancylostoma braziliense or nectar Americanus
Catecholamines activate the Na/K pump, which will drive K inside.
Read online that catachelamines are released following tonic clonic seizures. Besides that, BP of 180/100 could indicate that catecholamines are circulating.
This mechanism is why giving albuterol for hyperkalemia works
Why does this guy have increased catecholamines tho
His SNS activity is seriously increased --> increased catecholamines.
Why is his SNS activity increased? Is the BP literally the only hint?
Alcohol withdrawal creates a hyper- catecholaminergic state + Seizures do that as well.
My best guess is that withdrawal puts the body in a state of stress (same for seizures) and with stress you have release of catecholamine which we'll see in the BP and the hypokalemia.
I just dont understand how that is the cause of his altered state of consciousness. Why wouldnt altered affinity of oxygen from HbA1c be correct? A1C has a higher affinity for oxygen so wouldnt that be a better reason for him being unconscious?
HbA1c is more of a chronic process. It is a snapshot of three months. Also, people can have elevated A1c without much impact on their mental status. Other organs are affected sooner and to a greater degree than the brain. DKA is an acute issue.
Can somebody please explain why 'Inability of neurons to perform glycolysis' is wrong?
Probably because they're sustained on ketones.
@snafull glucose is very high in the blood, why would neurons not be able to use it?
@snafull maybe u are confusing bc DK tissues are unable to use the high glucose as it is unable to enter cells but I dont think thats the case in the neurons?
I thought the high amount of glucose in the blood (osmotic pressure), sucks out the water from the cells. But you also pee out all that glucose and water goes with it. That's why you have to drink and pee a lot..
Neurons are not dependent on insulin, so they are not affected by utilization of glucose (only GLUT4 receptors in the muscle and adipose tissue are insulin dependent)
@titanesxvi You really enlightened me!
Sorry, but there is not other way that I can understand this?
@guillo12 basically 67% fall within 1 sd. That means that 33% are +/- >1sd. So taking only those with above 296, you only look at those >1sd above the mean which is 16.5% . The other 16.5% are those >1sd below the mean.
Thank you!!! @fulminant_life
Wow, just checked First Aid and it doesn’t list “cough” as a symptom of EBV.
EBV is not a “respiratory virus”; it’s a *B cell virus*. Even though you might associate it with the “upper respiratory tract” (=kissing disease), it doesn’t cause respiratory inflammation since that’s not its trope. B cells are its trope! That’s why EBV is implicated in Burkitt Lymphoma, hairy leukoplakia and other blood cancers. (EBV is also known as “lymphocryptovirus” -- it was originally discovered “hiding” in *lymphocytes* of monkeys.) So, EBV = think B cells.
EBV does cause pharyngeal and laryngeal inflammation along with fever, malaise, and cough and LAD. The only thing that pointed me away from mono and towards coronavirus was the patients age.
Can someone explain what not holding up to acid or being dried has to do with being enveloped?
@nbmehelp, the envelope consists of phospholipids and glycoproteins => heat, acid, detergents, drying - all of that can dissolve the lipid bilayer membranes => viruses will loss their infectivity (because they need an envelope for two reasons - to protect them against host immune system, and to attach to host cells surface in order to infect them)
this question is garbage. She doesnt want to be examined by a male how would the presence of her husband make any difference in that respect?
The question here focuses on a specific issue which is the patient's religious conservative beliefs vs. urgency of the situation. A physician is required to respect the patient's autonomy while also balancing between beneficence and non-maleficence. The answer choice where the physician asks the patient if it would be ok to perform the exam with the husband present is an attempt to respect the conservative religious belief of the patient (not being exposed or alone with another man in the absence of her husband) while also allowing the physician to provide necessary medical treatment that could be life saving for her and or the child. Again, this allows for the patient to practice autonomy as she has the right to say no.
I showed this question to my parents and they said "this is the kind of stuff you study all day?" smh
I totally agree this is a garbage question. I personally think there is more garbage question on new NBME forms than the previous ones...they can argue in any way. I feel like they were just trying to make people struggle on bad options when everybody knows what they were trying to ask.
This question is a3othobillah
this question is really not that garbage....actually easy points I was grateful for... yall are just clearly ignorant about Islam. educate yourselves, brethren, just as this exam is trying to get you to do. but yeah I agree there should be an option for female physician lol
I think this NBME24 is a waste of $60.
On one hand we have these types of questions, that have 0 connection to our week-month-year-long studying.
On the other hand we have "Synaptobrevin" instead of SNARE, because f*ck coming up with good questions.
@sunshinesweetheart I actually have studied the religion tremendously and there a clear consensus among all Muslims that in the case of an emergency, it is completely allowed to have someone from the opposite gender examine you. I think this actually represents how ignorant the exam writers are of Islam.
FA says, "euphoria, disinhibition, hyperactivity, distorted sensory and time perception, bruxism.
Lifethreatening effects include hypertension, tachycardia, hyperthermia, hyponatremia, serotonin syndrome."
So I think they wanted you to see Sinus Tachy and jump for MDMA. Idk why Ketamine couldn't also potentially be correct though.
I picked ketamine because it said no diaphoresis. But if you need to find a reason, I guess the half life of ketamine might rule it out. Remember from sketchy, ketamine is used for anaesthesia induction, so probably won't keep the HR and BP high for 8 hrs. In fact, its action is ~10-15 mins-ish iv.
Because the NBME is full of fuckers. The guy is probably dehydrated so he cant sweat anymore?
you wouldnt see tachycardia with ketamine. It causes cardiovascular depression but honestly i saw " all-night dance party" picked the mdma answer and moved on lol
Ketamine acts as a sympathomimetic but oh well. NBME hasn't caught on to ketamine as a drug of recreation :)
@usmleuser007 LSD doesn't cause HTN and ↑ HR.
@fulminant_life FALSE. KETAMINE CAUSES CARDIOVASCULAR STIMULATION.
Take a look at why the patient has pale and cold extremities.
"Mechanistic clinical studies indicate that the MDMA-induced elevations in body temperature in humans partially depend on the MDMA-induced release of norepinephrine and involve enhanced metabolic heat generation and cutaneous vasoconstriction, resulting in impaired heat dissipation."
@sbryant6 you're both saying the same thing. Ketamine has a direct negative inotropic effect on the heart, but it is also a sympathomimetic. You are both correct.
@drzed Can you please site that? As far as I understand ketamine has a sympathomimetic effect on the CV system --> increased chronotropy and BP. I also don't see how they're saying the same thing. One person said "stimulation" and the other said "depression"
haloperidol induced Parkinson's... ? adding a anticholinergic can counter these adverse effects of the antipsychotic .. ?
@mousie yeah it balances the dopamine-cholinergic imbalance caused by the antipsychotics
+So antipsychotics induce Extrapyramidal side effects which is drug induced Parkinson = low Dopamine High Ach, and you would treat this with anticholinergic (Benztropine).This is neurologic.
+Antipsychotics also produce non-neurologic, systemic anti-cholinergic effects like dry mouth, sedation, hypotension etc
Definitely was the same for me. I was so confused for like 5 mins
dude i almost didn't get the question bc of this ... i thought the age of onset was the actual age of onset (36)
Are you serious. NBME strikes again with shitty formatting.
OMG!! Now I just realized that. Super confused and also thought onset of age was 36. :-/
what is 36 supposed to be?
Think the number of people in that group
Yup...was looking at it for a good 3 min before just doing the "fuck it..it's gotta be 99"
Age of Onset is the Title of the table, which I didn't figure out until after exam was over. What terrible formatting.