to snoo-finity ... and beyond!
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I think its there.. I thought it was the lighter red/pink material (hyaline material)
And I thought the white streaks were the fibrosis like "streaked ovaries"in Turners.
I think Cleft palate could also be due to failure of fusion of lateral and medial nasal prominences.. but since the baby had lip involvement and the lateral nasals can be seen, I went with failure of Maxillary and medial nasal fusion. Someone correct me if im wrong.
The prompt is only asking "what's the likely cause of obesity?" It's not that they're "allowing" him to eat more than exercise. (Few parents can monitor their kids that closely!) The prompt is only asking what's the most likely explanation for his 95th percentile weight and BMI (given that he otherwise appears normal); in the United States, the most likely explanation is eating way more than you expend.
aka 'merica #firstworldproblems
This question is asking about the ‘S’ of FA Mnemonic for S. Pneumonia “MOPS”. Strep pneumo is the most common cause of sepsis in adults.
MOPS stands for meningitis, otitis, pneumonia, and SINUSITIS. It doesn't stand for sepsis. My guess as well is which is "more correct". It's about being able to identify encapsulated organisms and the spleen's role in immunity. Ha I chose E coli as well.
emmy2k21 is correct, the S is for sinusitis. I was between E.coli & Strep Pneumo, but then recalled Sketchy putting the sickle on the 'encapsulated' knight in the Strep Pneumo video; Strep Pneumo is more associated with infecting sickle cell "functionally asplenic" patients.
You could also recall that before splenectomy(ik this is a emergency splenectomy) we would want to give an encapsulated vaccine like the pneumococcal vaccine. this pushed me towards strep over ecoli
It arises in the medulla and *passes* through the cortex because its invasive and malignant.
I think that they just wanted you to notice the **calcifications**. Per FA, "calcifications are common in craniopharyngiomas," whereas I don't think you'd expect to see calcifications in a prolactinoma.
also the option is prolactinoma not broad pituitary calcifications and he doesnt show any specific signs of high prolactin
I totally skipped over the word "parentally" when taking this - ugh!
pg 338 of FA lists it under hypothyroidism but it does present as transient hyperthyroidism first
yep that was the key! Goiter is "HOT" but the remaining answer choices were still kind of bleh D was distracting the hell out of me i spent so long to convince myself to pick C and move on
Pasting nwinkelmann's comment as an addition: Choice "D" is wrong b/c "lymphomatous thyroid gland" = primary thyroid lymphoma (typically NHL, which is very rare) or Hashimoto's thyroid progression. Hashimoto's thyroiditis = lymphocytic infiltrate with germinal B cells and Hurthle cells, which upon continued stimulation, can lead to mutation/malignant transformation to B cell lymphoma. Both of these present with hypothyroidism with low T4 and high TSH (opposite of this patient).
I actually thought that the posterior column findings were likely due to B12 deficiency - "subactue combined degeneration", due to malabsorption, as we see in this pt (. Turns out vitamin E can also cause symptoms which look like subacute combined degeneration: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/9012278, as does Copper (TIL): https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/15249607
Vitamin E deficiency causes posterior column findings and hemolytic anemia :)
The way I think about it is that essentially, vitamin E is an anti-oxidant. Vitamin E deficiency = LOTS of oxidation, i.e. free radicals, which are toxic to most cells in the body (particularly myelination and RBCs). That's why it can be used with Alzheimer's patients.
I would also like to know if anyone can answer this question - I saw it as a Sattar "one day, one week, one month" kind of question. Its probably very simple but I still don't get it
I posted a new comment explaining: basement membrane integrity is the strongest determinant of full fx recovery following pulmonary insult :)
You have to think about it this way: the basement membrane is the “scaffolding” on which [restorative] healing occurs. So, yes, stem cells (type II pneumocytes) would be involved in that healing process but they couldn’t restore the *normal* architecture (“no abnormalities”) without the ‘skeleton’ of the basement membrane telling them where to go, in what direction to grow, which way is “up”, etc. If the basement membrane is destroyed, you can still get healing, but it won’t be organized healing -- it’ll be *disorganized* healing, which does not appear as normal tissue. (Disorganized healing is better than no healing, but without a BM, the regenerating cells don’t have any “direction” and therefore can’t restore the normal architecture.)
Yes, this a great summary to the post by @bubbles and the article he posted! Another way to think of the question is not, what causes repair, but what causes irreversible injury/fibrosis. That article explained an experiment that showed TGF-beta was necessary to initiate fibrosis, but if BM was intact and TGF-beta was removed, the fibrosis didn't persist, i.e. intact BM is protective against TGF-beta. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2645241/
ALK is increased in bone breakdown too. Prostate loves spreading to the lumbar Spine. It's like crack-cocaine for cancer.
I think the "Worse at night" lends itself more towards mets, and the pt demographics lean towards prostate cancer, which loves to go to the lumbar spine via the Batson plexus. I picked Paget but i think they would have given something more telling if they wanted pagets, histology or another clue
@seagull and aesalmon, I think you're a bit off here. Prostate mets would be osteoblastic, not osteolytic as is described in the vignette.
Yeah I chose Paget's too bcz I figured if it wasn't prostate cancer (which as @fcambridge said would present w/ osteoblastic lesions) they would give us another presenting sx of the metastatic cancer (lung, renal, skin) that might point us in that direction. I got distracted by the increased ALP too and fell for Paget :(
@fcambridge, not exactly. Yes, prostate mets tends to be osteoblastic, but about 30% are found to be lytic, per this study: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2768452/ Additionally, the night bone pains point to mets, and Paget's is much more commonly found in the cranial bones and appendicular skeleton, than axial. This could also be RCC mets!
I mainly ruled out pagets because they said the physical examination was normal. He would def have other symptoms.
From what I remember from Pathoma:
Metastasis to bone is usually osteolytic with exception to prostate, which is osteoblastic.
Therefore, stem says NUMEROUS lytic lesions and sounds more like metastasis.
I agree, I picked H1 because such a common complaint for those on TCAs is Sedation, I figure it might be so commonly seen as to be the "most common" reason for noncompliance. I suppose the "hot as a hare...etc" effects would be more severe/annoying, but I didn't think they were more common.
I just like to pretend that there's a reason this question is now in an NBME and no longer being used for the test. Hopefully they realized the idiocy of this question like we all do
Since it said cyclic, I thought of using, discontinuing, then using again. These people who write these questions need take some English writing courses so they can write with CLARITY. Cyclic is not the same as Tricyclic.
Questions like this usually hinge on asking if you're going to follow the rules or not though, obviously the one asking her to lie and say she was her sister is wrong, but the correct answer is obviously breaking the hospice center's "policy" - presumably if the physician is sending her to hospice then they don't work there so why would the Dr. be able to just tell her its fine?
Yeah, I got this one wrong with the same logic as you, aesalmon.
I genuinely interpreted this question as though the two women were in a relationship because of the quotes "my close friend". I figured significant others would be allowed to visit simply. Ha seems like I'm the only one who read too far in between the lines!
@emmy2k21 I also thought the quotes implied a lesbian relationship and that the patient was afraid to share this (they grew up at a time when it was heavily stigmatized). So i was thinking, of course you and your "special friend" can stay together. I know this is not just a phase
Anything particularly wrong with A (Don't worry. I'll call you right away...")? It seemed like the most professional yet considerate answer choice.
Are we supposed to imply that they're partners based on those quotation marks around "close friend"? Because otherwise it seems like too casual and less professional than A, almost as if it's breaking policy.
I can swear that I saw this exact same question in UWORLD before. The only reason I got it right this time.
I agree, the article you linked states "signs of fetal hyperthyroidism such as tachycardia, intrauterine growth retardation, cardiac failure, and the development of fetal goitre"
I chose answer E during the exam - "Thyroid gland enlargement"
Still trying to understand how they linked cretinism to a case where the mother's hypothyroidism was well controlled, and then asked for the sequelae if her TSH increased. Maybe increased TSH is supposed to indicate worsening hypothyroid - low T3/T4 needing to be stimulated by TSH?