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Welcome to unknown007’s page.
Contributor score: -3


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 +0  visit this page (nbme22#26)
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thiazide diuretics further exacerbate the hypovolemic state. consquently body senses this and attempts to reabsorb more na and cl at PCT.

VERIFIED COMMENT : LINK https://academic.oup.com/ndt/article/15/12/1903/1814415

scroll to "proposed mechanism of action"

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 +0  visit this page (nbme22#5)
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this is likely HIV . 1. SS RNA 2. encephalitis 3. reverse transcriptase

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 +0  visit this page (nbme22#33)
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how do you guys "displace" your feelings when you're among the 2 percent that chose the wrong answer ? :-P

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 +0  visit this page (nbme22#1)
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lol, thanks to the question i now know 2 things, well actually just one.

ligament of tqrstuv (whatevr that is: still dont know it and dont plan on fixating on it) and that it is supposed to be on the left

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 +0  visit this page (nbme22#27)
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question why does metablic acidosis have low bicarb and respiratory acidosis high bicarb ,

when the essence of the bicarb in both cases is to neutralize the acidity ???

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 +0  visit this page (nbme22#47)
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tip : anything thats ass. with letter B is increased in quad screen of downs.

eg. -inhiBin and B hcg

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 +0  visit this page (nbme22#17)
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tips and tricks

1-tibial medial

2-fibulateral

medial overstretch= eversion

lateral overstretch = inversion

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 +0  visit this page (nbme22#1)
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lets revise some basic physiology shall we ?

so angiotensin 2 stimulates the hypothallmus which in turn causes release of adh from post pituitary , which can then cause dilutional hyponatremia.

back to pathology. biventricular failure> less cardiac output to kidney > activation of RAAS > release of angiotensin 2 > this stimulates hypothallamus .

VERIFIED LINK BELOW

https://www.google.com/url?sa=i&url=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.cvphysiology.com%2FBlood%2520Pressure%2FBP016&psig=AOvVaw3XysbCrw7EMVCjFm3QGtrT&ust=1611170243886000&source=images&cd=vfe&ved=0CA0QjhxqFwoTCJD2kIPbqO4CFQAAAAAdAAAAABAI

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 +0  visit this page (nbme22#35)
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one of those questions i dont even bother to stress upon.

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 +0  visit this page (nbme22#14)
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lets not overthink and apply principles of general enzymology.

deoxyribonucleotides converted ribonucleotides to a deoxy state.

excess of deoxyATP product will then kinda like feedback inhibit the enzyme since enough of the deoxy product has been made.

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 +0  visit this page (nbme22#12)
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why not normal pressure (besides absence of symptoms of the triad)

because both are associated with dementia and enlarged ventricles

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 +0  visit this page (nbme22#5)
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just break down the word and analyze its literal meaning.

read at your own risk !

NEGATIVE NITROGEN BALANCE= nitrogen (your muscles) going in negative ( aka muscle wasting

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 +0  visit this page (nbme22#5)
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easy question, know that its a case of multiple myeloma, and they have impairment in competent immunoglobulin production. i wish i had used this concept .

it was literally a give away and i screwed it

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 +0  visit this page (nbme19#46)
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difficult question.

very limited clues.

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Subcomments ...

submitted by meningitis(644), visit this page
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Tanner stages start at TEN years old

Stage I:

  • I is flat, as in flat chest;
  • I is alone, as in no sexual hairs.

Stage II (2): stage II starts at 11 y/o (II look like 11)

  • 2 balls (testicular enlargement)
  • 2 hairs (pubic hairs now appearing)
  • 2 breast buds form

Stage III (3): starts at 13 y/o

  • If you rotate 3, it looks like small breasts (Breast mounds form);
  • If you squiggle the III they look like curly+coarse pubic hair
  • Increased penis length and size can be represented by: II --> III
    (your penis was thin II but now its thicker III)

Stage IV (4): starts at 14 y/o

  • First imagine: The I in IV represents the thigh, and the V in IV looks like the mons pubis between your legs:
    MEANING: you have hair in mons pubis (V) but you have a border detaining the hair from growing into thighs.
  • The V is pointy, as in now the breasts are pointy (raised areola or mound on mound)

Stage V (5): 15 y/o

  • V has no borders detaining hair from growing into thighs (pubic hair + thigh hair)
  • 5 fingers(as in hands) flattening the areolas when grabbing them (areola flatten at this stage and no more "mound on mound")

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meningitis  Sorry about the format, it came out wrong but I hope his helps. +2
drdoom  looks good to me! +25
gh889  According to FA2019, stage 2 ends at 11, stage 3 starts 11.5-13, and stage 4 starts at 13-15, where did you get your info from? +1
meningitis  You can change it to ENDS at 11, ENDS at 13, ENDS at 14... I simply have it as a range just like you stated in a couple of them. The importance is in how the kid presents because he/she will have some things mature but others not, the age will vary in questions. +1
endochondral1  stage 3 breast mound is for females not males btw +4
endochondral1  see pg. 635 in FA it just pubertal. Idk if that correlates to the same stage as females +1
angelaq11  this is just too funny, I LOVE it! xD +4
snripper  While this is impressive, this doesn't help with answering the question. +2
yng  Pseudogynecomastia (False gynecomastia): this has nothing to do with puberty or hormones. Simple d/t the fast some guys have extra fat in chest area, making it look like they have breasts. The boy weight at 60 percentile while height at 50 percentile. +1


submitted by paperbackwriter(161), visit this page
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According to Goljan, men have boobs three times in their lives: when they're babies, when they're going through puberty, and when they're old. It's physiological/normal.

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sars  I agree, babies-estrogen transfer through placenta from mother puberty-testosterone conversion via aromatase to estrogen elderly-increased fat content with androstenedione conversion to estrone read this somewhere and it sticks LOL +2


submitted by meningitis(644), visit this page
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Tanner stages start at TEN years old

Stage I:

  • I is flat, as in flat chest;
  • I is alone, as in no sexual hairs.

Stage II (2): stage II starts at 11 y/o (II look like 11)

  • 2 balls (testicular enlargement)
  • 2 hairs (pubic hairs now appearing)
  • 2 breast buds form

Stage III (3): starts at 13 y/o

  • If you rotate 3, it looks like small breasts (Breast mounds form);
  • If you squiggle the III they look like curly+coarse pubic hair
  • Increased penis length and size can be represented by: II --> III
    (your penis was thin II but now its thicker III)

Stage IV (4): starts at 14 y/o

  • First imagine: The I in IV represents the thigh, and the V in IV looks like the mons pubis between your legs:
    MEANING: you have hair in mons pubis (V) but you have a border detaining the hair from growing into thighs.
  • The V is pointy, as in now the breasts are pointy (raised areola or mound on mound)

Stage V (5): 15 y/o

  • V has no borders detaining hair from growing into thighs (pubic hair + thigh hair)
  • 5 fingers(as in hands) flattening the areolas when grabbing them (areola flatten at this stage and no more "mound on mound")

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meningitis  Sorry about the format, it came out wrong but I hope his helps. +2
drdoom  looks good to me! +25
gh889  According to FA2019, stage 2 ends at 11, stage 3 starts 11.5-13, and stage 4 starts at 13-15, where did you get your info from? +1
meningitis  You can change it to ENDS at 11, ENDS at 13, ENDS at 14... I simply have it as a range just like you stated in a couple of them. The importance is in how the kid presents because he/she will have some things mature but others not, the age will vary in questions. +1
endochondral1  stage 3 breast mound is for females not males btw +4
endochondral1  see pg. 635 in FA it just pubertal. Idk if that correlates to the same stage as females +1
angelaq11  this is just too funny, I LOVE it! xD +4
snripper  While this is impressive, this doesn't help with answering the question. +2
yng  Pseudogynecomastia (False gynecomastia): this has nothing to do with puberty or hormones. Simple d/t the fast some guys have extra fat in chest area, making it look like they have breasts. The boy weight at 60 percentile while height at 50 percentile. +1


submitted by humble_station(85), visit this page
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The question here stated that the patient was stabbed beneath the 12th rib grazing the inferior pole of the left kidney.

From this you have to know the anatomical associations with the left kidney. The left kidney is in contact with the spleen, stomach & splenic flexure.

Out of these 3 options you have the stomach and Splenic flexure anterior to the kidney but what makes the splenic flexure the best answer is the description of where the he was stabbed. Stomach will be higher up than the splenic flexure.

Apply the same concept to the left kidney!

Hope this helps

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madamestep  Lol my dumbass thought splenic flexure meant the inner curvature of the spleen. Even though I am well aware of what the actual splenic flexure is... +1


submitted by paperbackwriter(161), visit this page
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For those that didn't quite get what the stem was saying, basically Osler's sign is when you're squeezing the blood pressure cuff and keep going higher and higher because the arteries won't collapse as easily (due to natural stiffening of the arteries with age). The lack of collapse upon squeezing is why you can still feel the radial artery in the stem. So even though the pressure inside the arteries might be normal, you're gonna measure it as high (pseudohypertension). Apparently it's a common finding in the elderly.

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submitted by liverdietrying(111), visit this page
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This one was a little tricky. For this one the key is the low radioiodine uptake. This patient has high T4 and low TSH which makes sense in a hyperthyroid patient, perhaps your first thought is that this patient has Grave’s disease. However, in Grave’s your thyroid is being stimulated to make more thyroid hormone from scratch and as such would have an increased radioiodine uptake because the thyroid is bringing in the required (now radiolabeled) iodine. This is why it is not Graves (“release of thyroid hormone from a thyroid stimulated by antibodies”).

So if its not Grave’s what could it be? For this you’d have to know that Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis (also known as Chronic Lymphocytic Thyroiditis and is often referred to as such on board exams to throw you off) has three phases - first they are hyperthyroid, then euthyroid, then the classic hypothyroid that you would expect with low T4 and high TSH. This was the key to this question. The reason for this is that antithyroid peroxidase antibodies in Hashimoto’s cause the thyroid to release all of its stored thyroid hormone making the patient hyperthyroid for a short period of time. After this massive release of thyroid hormone, the antibodies make them unable to make new TH and therefore they become euthyroid for a short period and then hypothyroid which you would expect! Since they can’t make new TH, the thyroid will not take up the radioiodine and therefore there will be low radioiodine uptake. Hence, “release of stored thyroid hormone from a thyroid gland infiltrated by lymphocytes.” aka “Lymphocytic (hashimotos) thyroiditis”.

I think “release of thyroid hormone from a lymphomatous thyroid gland” is referring to some kind of thyroid cancer in which case you would expect them to be describing a nodule on radioiodine uptake.

​Summary video here and also a great site in general: https://onlinemeded.org/spa/endocrine/thyroid/acquire

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aesalmon  pg 338 of FA lists it under hypothyroidism but it does present as transient hyperthyroidism first +9
hyperfukus  yep that was the key! Goiter is "HOT" but the remaining answer choices were still kind of bleh D was distracting the hell out of me i spent so long to convince myself to pick C and move on +3
hello  Pasting nwinkelmann's comment as an addition: Choice "D" is wrong b/c "lymphomatous thyroid gland" = primary thyroid lymphoma (typically NHL, which is very rare) or Hashimoto's thyroid progression. Hashimoto's thyroiditis = lymphocytic infiltrate with germinal B cells and Hurthle cells, which upon continued stimulation, can lead to mutation/malignant transformation to B cell lymphoma. Both of these present with hypothyroidism with low T4 and high TSH (opposite of this patient). +1
taediggity  I absolutely love your @liverdietrying, however the pathogenesis of postpartum thyroiditis is similar to Hashimoto's, so I think this person has postpartum thyroiditis and your explanation of transient thyrotoxicosis is spot on, which would also occur in postpartum thyroiditis +16
pg32  I agree with @taediggity. Also note that women eventually recover from postpartum thyroiditis and typically become euthyroid again, which doesn't happen with Hashimoto's. +
vulcania  In FA (2019 p. 338) it says that thyroid is usually normal size in postpartum thyroiditis, but the patient in this question had a thyroid "twice the normal size." I guess at the end of the day it doesn't matter which diagnosis is right for this question cause they both seem to lead to the same correct answer :) +2


submitted by gh889(154), visit this page
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Ketorolac is a reversible NSAID given IV, all NSAIDs have a risk of interstitial nephritis, renal ischemia, gastric ulcers, and aplastic anemia.

the best answer is renal failure b/c it is given IV and has less of a chance of causing gastric ulcers

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tiredofstudying  I would also take into account that this patient has had HTN and T2DM for 20 years. His kidneys are probably shot. +5
jackie_chan  @tiredofstudying 100%, thats probably why the mentioned it, if you didn't know wtf ketorolac was (I didnt) but i saw a long 20 year history of HTN, DM I assumed his kidney def could not be fully functional +
faus305  I just ordered sushi from Japan. +1
samhsuy  did it arrive yet, please update +1
steakboy  Any updates on the sushi? +1
kcyanide101  here I was thinking it was a form of Ketamine and choosing disorientation. +1
ninawilson  @kcyanide101 me too!! +


submitted by monique(10), visit this page
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Does anyone know where I can find this information on FIRST Aid 2020? I can not find it . Thanks for posting the answer!

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eghafoor  Page 559: Olfactory hallucinations "often occur as an aurea of temporal lobe epilepsy (burning rubber) and in brain tumors" +3


submitted by bobson150(28), visit this page
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The wording of this question confused me. This is asking "which of these vessels is the high pressure system" right? So the high pressure superior rectal is causing increased pressure into the inferior rectal?

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welpdedelp  Superior rectal comes from the inferior mesenteric vein which comes from the splenic vein --> portal veins Thus, this dude had cirrhosis so it would "back-up" into the superior rectal vein. FA 2018: p360 +16
nc1992  Superior rectal not superior mesenteric. Took me a minute +
hyperfukus  ugh am i ever gonna get these right EVER +5
titanesxvi  why not the inferior mesenteric, since the superior rectal drains there +2
thomasburton  @titanesxvi think it is because question says direct which is why superior rectal +2
lilyo  thomasburton, so are they asking what vessels do internal hemorrhoids directly drain into? The order is Superior rectal vein--> Inferior mesenteric vein--> portal vein. +
thomasburton  Yes exactly, so they do eventually reach IMV but not 'directly' +
pg32  Also worded poorly because the varicosities are connections between the superior rectal and the middle/inferior rectal veins of the systemic circulation. So the blood could be in both the superior rectal vein and the middle/inferior rectal vein as that is what a varicosity is. +3
snripper  You just gotta know indirect vs. direct hemorrhoids. In this case, it's an indirect hemorrhoid (superior rectal vein) because of the rectal bleeding. +
jesusisking  @titanesxvi DrDoom explained it pretty well below: "Defining tributary: https://i.imgur.com/2zDxPbW.png Nice images make the term easier to recall. Smaller streams "pay tribute" to larger rivers (by flowing into them)" +


submitted by unknown007(-3), visit this page
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easy question, know that its a case of multiple myeloma, and they have impairment in competent immunoglobulin production. i wish i had used this concept .

it was literally a give away and i screwed it

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