Alteration of the thermostatic set point is a hypothalamic process mediated by prostaglandins and is independent of the sympathetic nervous system.

B, C, D, and E all require sympathetic nerves to ellicit a response.

Hypothalamus controlling temperature set point is briefly mentioned in Pathoma 2018 edition page 13, Chapter 2 III Cardinal signs of inflammation D. Fever

Pyogenes -> macrophage release IL-1 and TNF -> increased cyclooxygenase activity in hypothalamus perivascular cells -> increased hypothalamus PGE2 -> raised temperature set point

Can someone explain why when you transect the spinal cord superior to the level of sympathetic outflow -- and you get a systemic infection -- the response is alteration of the thermostatic set point?

From ShoryukenHadooken on reddit:

What the question is getting at is the sympathetic chain was spared. It was a terrible way of wording it.

Your anterior hypothalamus is responsible for cooling features and is under parasympathetic control. A lesion would cause hyperthermia.

Your posterior hypothalamus is responsible for heating when you're cold and to generate the Fever response and is under sympathetic control. A lesion would cause hypothermia.

In this question it is simply asking a person gets sick, hypothalamus was spared, what happens.

Answer: hypothalamus will still be able to elevate set body temperature to battle infection.

Hint: IF they give a question similar to this but reworded to include a lesion of the sympathetic fibers or of the hypothalamus, you would in turn NOT be able to generate a fever response to infection. The hypothalamus would be entirely under parasympathetic control

This adds more context to the fact the Q states that the sympathetics was spared