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impostersyndromel1000
This was in pathoma, he said prostate cancer causes osteoblastic lesions and "the board examiners really want you to know that". also following the potential site of mets helps choose the answer
+2
snripper
Also, osteosarcoma is less common in the elderly, more common in males <20 y/o (per F.A 2020)
+2
homersimpson
Osteosarcoma causes lytic bone lesions @cocoxarus
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chaosawaits
I definitely overthought this one to death. I had prostate adenocarcinoma, but then reread it to make sure I wasn't missing anything. The normal referenced labs made me reconsider. So I chose osteosarcoma. If anyone could explain the normal labs (no elevated ALP), I'd appreciate it.
+1
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drjungly
All primary bone cancer - mc seen in age b/t 20-40 peak at 25.
Prostate adenocarcinoma - mc seen age >50 yr old.
Source-FA 2018
+3
asharm10
Sometimes instead of osteoblastic they say osteosclerotic that's synonym of Osteoblastic.
For multiple myeloma it's always osteolytic.
+3
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lsp1992
Urinalysis provides a microscopic examination of urine, which would tell you about the presence of RBC, WBC, casts, crystals, epithelial cells, and a chemical test for nitrites, bili, urobilinogen, ph, specific gravity, proteins, glucose, blood, and ketones.
PSA is a specific protein that would be found in the blood, and a lab test that would have to be ordered specifically.
+1
chaosawaits
Does the same logic apply for no report of elevated ALP?
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l0ud_minority
So chemistry profiling is supposed to mean a BMP? This could be interpreted just as easily as a CMP which would give you Alk Phos. Poorly written question.
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submitted by โcocoxaurus(59)
Almost got tricked by this one because osteosarcoma also causes osteoblastic lesion. Osteosarcoma most commonly metastasizes to lungs though.