need help with your account or subscription? click here to email us (or see the contact page)
join telegramNEW! discord
jump to exam page:
search for anything โ‹… score predictor (โ€œpredict me!โ€)

Welcome to melanomaโ€™s page.
Contributor score: 28


Comments ...

 +1  visit this page (nbme16#22)
get full access to all content โ‹… become a member

fluoxetine is the only antidepressant medication approved by the FDA for the treatment of BN.

get full access to all content โ‹… become a member
shieldmaiden  Just never choose bupropion, always an SSRI for BN +
fatboyslim  ^Yes because bupropion lowers the threshold for seizures and BN patients often have electrolyte abnormalities which increase the likelihood for seizures to happen +1

 -2  visit this page (nbme24#7)
get full access to all content โ‹… become a member

strawberry hemangioma: capillary hemangioma consist on thin walled blood vessels filled with blood and separated by conective tissue. cavernous hemangioma: LARGE dilated vascular spaces this is the difference

get full access to all content โ‹… become a member




Subcomments ...

submitted by gabeb71(51), visit this page
get full access to all content โ‹… become a member

The puborectalis muscle, which is one of the muscles that comprise the pelvic floor and plays an important role in both fecal continence and defecation, is tonically contracted and maintains the anorectal angle at rest.

here is a picture: https://www.123rf.com/photo_46940875_stock-vector-the-rectum-and-anus-showing-the-puborectalis-muscle-part-of-the-levator-ani-used-for-the-control-of-.html

get full access to all content โ‹… become a member
gh889  How do you differentiate this from hypertonicity of the internal anal sphincter? +2
gh889  nvm. im dumb lol +
qball  Uworld Q ID 17004 +
focus  @gh889 I made the same mistake... fecal INCONTINENCE meaning she CAN pass stool-- in fact, way too well... more than we want. Hypertonicity of the internal anal sphincter would cause constipation-like symptoms. +4
weirdmed51  But unworld says decreased function of puborectalis leads to constipation! +1
akshat96  Exactly! Thatโ€™s I didnโ€™t pick decreased functional of puborectalis. +
melanoma  In the question of UW the puborectalis muscle fails to relax and in the question of NBME the puborectalis muscle fails to contract. +1


submitted by cassdawg(1781), visit this page
get full access to all content โ‹… become a member

I think this is Strongyloides stercoralis (threadworm) is a roundworm whose larvae live in soil and who can cause pulmonary disease. It has the ability to penetrate skin from the soil but can also be obtained by ingesting feces contaminates soil (FA2020 p159) https://www.cdc.gov/parasites/strongyloides/gen_info/faqs.html

Most intestinal roundworms are fecal-oral route except strongyloides which can also penetrate skin, hookworm (necator americanus) which only penetrates skin, and trichinella which can come from undercooked meats (especially pork) but whose symptoms do not match that of the patient. Trichinella larvae enter the blood stream and infect muscle and can also cause trichinosis with fever, nausea, vomiting, periorbital edema, and myalgia.

get full access to all content โ‹… become a member
shervinbd  I think it is Ascaris, not Stringlyloides. The symptoms could be explained by Loeffler syndrome, caused by Ascaris larva migration. Ascaris is transmitted through fecal oral route, so ingestion of feces contaminated soil could cause the problem. Per FA, Strongylides is transmitted by larva penetrating skin. +23
drmifta  Its Ascaris. Fecal oral transmission -> Larvae penitrate GIT -> Blood Stream -> Lung {Maturation, Respiratory Symptom} -> Coughed up and swallowing -> Adult Warm in GIT -> Egg release -> Egg in stool. +1
i_hate_it_here  Didn't the stem mention that roundwarm larvae were found? I thought Ascaris is diagnosed by bile coated eggs in feces? +1
sexymexican888  I actually think @cassdawg is right. Its strongyloides. They found larvae in the feces (you find eggs in feces with ascaris) you can get pulmonary sx in both. Ascaris is also usually fecal oral transmission so its more likely to come from someone making food with contaminated hands. Strongyloides is transmitted through soil or sand and the larvae penetrate your feet so this makes more sense. +2
sexymexican888  You can find this is FA 2020 Pg 159. Also if you look at the table strongyloides is assoc. with pulmonary sx. However I think its both cause according to sketchy micro ascaris presents with respiratory sx +
coco  Although Strongyloides nematode worm infections are not overly common in the United States, the Appalachian area of the Southeast have reported cases. Ascaris lumbricoides is a common parasitic infection in Asia, Africa, and South America. Most cases in the United States arise in travelers to these regions. Loeffler syndrome can be caused by Strongyloides and Ascaris. Ascar:Stool microscopy reveals an oval egg with a thick outer shell and a single interior ovum Strongyloides:rhabditiform larvae seen in feces under microscope so.I think this is Strongyloides.If I make a mistake,please correct me. +2
melanoma  I think is ascaris lumbricoides also due to the size of the larva. UW Q 15549 +


submitted by bingcentipede(359), visit this page
get full access to all content โ‹… become a member

Grade refers to the differentiation, whereas stage refers to the TNM decriptions

This is high-grade because of the "poorly demarcated... cells growing in sheets" wit a high N:C ratio. Means it's got low differentiation.

This is low-stage because there is NO METASTASIS. Even though there is invasion (and thus, a cancer), M for the TNM is most important.

get full access to all content โ‹… become a member
the_enigma28  Excellent explanation. For additional info, look up at Page 220, FA 2020. +
melanoma  Uw Q1759 +


submitted by pakimd(31), visit this page
get full access to all content โ‹… become a member

empty can test isolates the supraspinatus tendon impingement between the acromion and humeral head and finds weakness of the supraspinatus muscle. it is performed by asking the pt. to abduct the arm in the scapular plane at 90 degrees with the arm extended with the the thumb point downwards and asked to abduct the shoulder against resistance. this will reproduced pain and indicate a positive empty can test and indicate supraspinatus tendinopathy

get full access to all content โ‹… become a member
djeffs1  I just love "Abduction of the shoulder when the shoulder is abducted..." +2
pakimd  was just trying to say that the pt. is asked to resist the downward pressure applied by the examiner which will only occur when the pt. is asked to abduct/keep his arm elevated against resistance. no need to be nasty. we are all trying to help each other here. +2
pakimd  you can just ask the pt. to resist downward pressure but too many times in clinical practice ive notced pts. getting confused so you specifically have to instruct them not to put their arm down when pressure is applied. that is why my answer (unintentionally) was phrased the way it was. +
djeffs1  @pakimd I got the question right, and i wasn't criticizing you. just pointing out a funny literary chiasmus in the actual question stem +3
melanoma  also full can test assesses for supraspinatus pathology +


submitted by bingcentipede(359), visit this page
get full access to all content โ‹… become a member

Changes that happen in aging:

Stays the same: TLC (very important to know this)

Increased: lung compliance, residual volume, V/Q mismatch, A-a gradient

Decreased: chest wall compliance, FVC, FEV1, respiratory muscle strength, ventilatory response to hypoxia/hypoxemia

AKA don't get old

get full access to all content โ‹… become a member
gooooose  FA 2020 p665 +1
sschulz2013  Exception: severe kyphosis can cause decrease in TLC! +4
ownersucks  Even though lung compliance increases there is stiffening of chest wall which balance out increased lung compliance. Thus TLC remains unchanged RV increase and FEV decreases because thereโ€™s collapse of out flow tract which weakens with age +1
kavarthapuanusha  All two word categories increas and three word categories decrease. +
melanoma  UW Q19287 +


submitted by joshua(3), visit this page
get full access to all content โ‹… become a member

UWorld explains it well. Uworld QID: 14781

HLA genes are clustered within a short region of a single chromosome. This results in a low rate of crossover, allowing the HLA gene cluster to be treated as a HLA calotype. Each child inherits 2 halotypes, one from the mother and one from the father. Therefore, the probabilities that a given sibling will share some or all of the same HLA genes are as follows:

  • 1/4 chance of inheriting all the same HLA genes (identical match)
  • 1/2 chance of inheriting half of the same genes (haploidentical HLA match)
  • 1/4 chance of inheriting none of the same HLA genes (HLA mismatch)
get full access to all content โ‹… become a member
neoamin  BUt this question is not about HLA mate ^^ +2
melanoma  I think is the same concept +2


submitted by andro(269), visit this page
get full access to all content โ‹… become a member

Fatty Acid degradation
-Occurs in mitochondria or peroxisomes

First step - uptake of the fatty acids by the cell and addition of CoA to them

Second step - Uptake of the Fatty Acyl CoA molecule into the mitochondria by the Carnitine Shuttle *( which involves removal and then addition of the CoA molecule again to the fatty acid once inside the mitochondria)

Once in the mitochondria the fatty acid may undergo , Beta-oxidation ( a process in which a fatty acid is oxidized/cleaved at the Beta carbon to generate Acetyl CoA in several cycles )

An Acyl CoA dehydrogenase catalyzes the initial step .
Look out for Hypoketotic Hypoglycemia in defects of fatty acid degradation

The 2 main subtypes to be aware of are -a problem with the carnitine shuttle ( systemic carnitine deficiency) - or with an Acyl CoA dehydrogenase ( eg MCAD deficiency )

get full access to all content โ‹… become a member
notyasupreme  It's actually funny because the question stem makes it seem like it's an MCAD deficiency (presence of dicarboxylic acid) and all the symptoms, but then treat it with MCAD. Whatever, I got it right but it just felt like a weird question to me. +4
nbmeanswersownersucks  yeah I was confused too but I also think the negative serum carnitine is supposed to help r/o MCAD deficiency since that usually has elevated serum carnitine. +1
baja_blast  If Carnitine was an option here, how could we differentiate this from primary carnitine deficiency? Would it have been possible? +11
melanoma  the presence of dicarboxylic aciduria is more related to mcad/lcad deficiency. the patient receives medium chain tryglicerides because he has the enzyme to metabolize it. +10
melanoma  but no for the long chain +
topgunber  just a few things, sure it sounds like mcad but lcad would present similarly, except in MCAD, giving medium chain triglycerides would worsen symptoms as compared with LCAD. + Similarly when fatty acids cant undergo Beta oxidation they undergo omega oxidation- which is why there is increased dicarboxlic acids (i.e. dont just jump for MCAD when you see dicarboxilic acids). Last of all it would be difficult to differentiate but if the patient were deficient in carnitine the treatment with MCADs would not show improvement because carnitine is required to shuttle the fatty acid into the MTs. +2
topgunber  'a 'weird question' because my school never asked it' +1
sexymexican888  According to UWORLD: Primary carnitine deficiency elevated muscle triglycerides. MCAD, will not +2


submitted by andro(269), visit this page
get full access to all content โ‹… become a member

Fatty Acid degradation
-Occurs in mitochondria or peroxisomes

First step - uptake of the fatty acids by the cell and addition of CoA to them

Second step - Uptake of the Fatty Acyl CoA molecule into the mitochondria by the Carnitine Shuttle *( which involves removal and then addition of the CoA molecule again to the fatty acid once inside the mitochondria)

Once in the mitochondria the fatty acid may undergo , Beta-oxidation ( a process in which a fatty acid is oxidized/cleaved at the Beta carbon to generate Acetyl CoA in several cycles )

An Acyl CoA dehydrogenase catalyzes the initial step .
Look out for Hypoketotic Hypoglycemia in defects of fatty acid degradation

The 2 main subtypes to be aware of are -a problem with the carnitine shuttle ( systemic carnitine deficiency) - or with an Acyl CoA dehydrogenase ( eg MCAD deficiency )

get full access to all content โ‹… become a member
notyasupreme  It's actually funny because the question stem makes it seem like it's an MCAD deficiency (presence of dicarboxylic acid) and all the symptoms, but then treat it with MCAD. Whatever, I got it right but it just felt like a weird question to me. +4
nbmeanswersownersucks  yeah I was confused too but I also think the negative serum carnitine is supposed to help r/o MCAD deficiency since that usually has elevated serum carnitine. +1
baja_blast  If Carnitine was an option here, how could we differentiate this from primary carnitine deficiency? Would it have been possible? +11
melanoma  the presence of dicarboxylic aciduria is more related to mcad/lcad deficiency. the patient receives medium chain tryglicerides because he has the enzyme to metabolize it. +10
melanoma  but no for the long chain +
topgunber  just a few things, sure it sounds like mcad but lcad would present similarly, except in MCAD, giving medium chain triglycerides would worsen symptoms as compared with LCAD. + Similarly when fatty acids cant undergo Beta oxidation they undergo omega oxidation- which is why there is increased dicarboxlic acids (i.e. dont just jump for MCAD when you see dicarboxilic acids). Last of all it would be difficult to differentiate but if the patient were deficient in carnitine the treatment with MCADs would not show improvement because carnitine is required to shuttle the fatty acid into the MTs. +2
topgunber  'a 'weird question' because my school never asked it' +1
sexymexican888  According to UWORLD: Primary carnitine deficiency elevated muscle triglycerides. MCAD, will not +2


submitted by bingcentipede(359), visit this page
get full access to all content โ‹… become a member

Ugh this question. The Gram stain and purple made me thing Staph aureus, but it also mentions "budding" and "elliptical" (SA is a coccus). Additionally, SA is not a common UTI infection while Candida is.

Annoying because of the Gram stain and purple descriptor.

From quora: "when decolourizer is added, the crystal violet taken up by yeast cells is retained." https://www.quora.com/Why-does-a-yeast-cell-give-Gram-positive-reaction

get full access to all content โ‹… become a member
melanoma  Also we can recognize Staph aureus for the beta hemolysis in a blood agar +1
fatboyslim  This isn't a UTI. She has a central venous catheter place (CVC), not a foley catheter. CVCs are a risk factor for candidemia. (At first glance I also thought she had a urinary catheter placed, it's important for us to not incorrectly skim over pertinent details :D) +1


submitted by abhishek021196(120), visit this page
get full access to all content โ‹… become a member

Fragile X syndrome X-linked dominant inheritance. Trinucleotide repeat in FMR1 gene = hypermethylation = Increased expression.

Most common inherited cause of intellectual disability (Down syndrome is the most common genetic cause, but most cases occur sporadically).

Findings: post-pubertal macroorchidism (enlarged testes), long face with a large jaw, large everted ears, autism, mitral valve prolapse, hypermobile joints.

Trinucleotide repeat expansion [(CGG) n ] occurs during oogenesis.

get full access to all content โ‹… become a member
melanoma  decreased expression +10
jbrito718  one mistake and this guys great explanation plummets. Bunch of savages +3


submitted by neonem(630), visit this page
get full access to all content โ‹… become a member

This patient has pulmonary fibrosis, which causes a restrictive (not obstructive)-type disease. Since there was no occupational exposure, I'm assuming this is idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. This causes thickened alveolar membranes, limiting gas diffusion. Therefore, eventually O2 won't be able to diffuse quickly enough into the blood across the alveolar-arterial membrane, resulting in a larger A-a difference. (I think there's normally a small A-a gradient, from 2-14 mm Hg, but when this gets too big, you get hypoxic)

get full access to all content โ‹… become a member
yex  UW q id 7648 +2
melanoma  uw id 1526 +1
feeeeeever  FA 2019 Pg. 661 +1


submitted by eli_medina9(22), visit this page
get full access to all content โ‹… become a member

ALLELIC HETEROGENEITY (FA page 57 2019)

Theres multiple allele variants for the CFTR gene in a single locus, so you could get cystic fibrosis from a mutation in any one of those allele variants(theres over 1500 different mutations described) the question stem mentioned they tested for the most common types, so we can assume they probably just missed testing for mutations in other alleles.

get full access to all content โ‹… become a member
melanoma  in other alleles?, we only have two alleles per gene +
qiss  @melanoma "other alleles" as in the same allele with a different type of mutation. Like eli_medina9 mentioned, CF simply can be caused by thousands of different mutations of the CFTR gene. This baby girl has two alleles, one of them with a mutation found in the analysis and the other allele with a mutation that wasn't detected amongst the most common mutations. +


submitted by rossiememe(6), visit this page
get full access to all content โ‹… become a member

DOSE x F = AUC x CL

(F= Bioavailability)

If dose is constant and F is increased for Drug X then AUC would increase.

get full access to all content โ‹… become a member
melanoma  and the cl? +2
cassdawg  Clearance is independent of bioavailability as it is determined by the rate of elimination (affected by liver and kidney "clearance" of the drug, not the "absorbability" that is essentially bioavailability) +1


submitted by keycompany(351), visit this page
get full access to all content โ‹… become a member

Type I Diabetes is characterized as the destruction of pancreatic islets (specifically beta cells) by T-cells. The most likely cause for hypoglycemia following insulin administration, therefore, is the destruction of alpha cells that surround the beta cells. This would cause decreased levels of circulating glucagon.

get full access to all content โ‹… become a member
titanesxvi  I think rather that high insulin is going to block the release of glucagon +6
mdmikek89  No, his answer is more correct. Obviously insulin will decrease glucagon release, but it says PROLONGED. So if I give a rapid acting insulin, serum glucose decreases, the insulin degrades...no rise in glucagon. The alpha cells are destroyed as well. This is the how I came to the answer and the best explanation. +3
melanoma  the answer is not correct +1
melanoma  his answer +1
prolific_pygophilic  I actually think this has some merit. I believe there is a U world question that talks about how very long history of T1DM (20 years in this patient) can progress to destruction of alpha cells and hence impaired release of glucagon and episodes of hypoglycemia. Thats how I reasoned it. The first answer is also possible. +1


submitted by keycompany(351), visit this page
get full access to all content โ‹… become a member

Type I Diabetes is characterized as the destruction of pancreatic islets (specifically beta cells) by T-cells. The most likely cause for hypoglycemia following insulin administration, therefore, is the destruction of alpha cells that surround the beta cells. This would cause decreased levels of circulating glucagon.

get full access to all content โ‹… become a member
titanesxvi  I think rather that high insulin is going to block the release of glucagon +6
mdmikek89  No, his answer is more correct. Obviously insulin will decrease glucagon release, but it says PROLONGED. So if I give a rapid acting insulin, serum glucose decreases, the insulin degrades...no rise in glucagon. The alpha cells are destroyed as well. This is the how I came to the answer and the best explanation. +3
melanoma  the answer is not correct +1
melanoma  his answer +1
prolific_pygophilic  I actually think this has some merit. I believe there is a U world question that talks about how very long history of T1DM (20 years in this patient) can progress to destruction of alpha cells and hence impaired release of glucagon and episodes of hypoglycemia. Thats how I reasoned it. The first answer is also possible. +1


submitted by keycompany(351), visit this page
get full access to all content โ‹… become a member

Type I Diabetes is characterized as the destruction of pancreatic islets (specifically beta cells) by T-cells. The most likely cause for hypoglycemia following insulin administration, therefore, is the destruction of alpha cells that surround the beta cells. This would cause decreased levels of circulating glucagon.

get full access to all content โ‹… become a member
titanesxvi  I think rather that high insulin is going to block the release of glucagon +6
mdmikek89  No, his answer is more correct. Obviously insulin will decrease glucagon release, but it says PROLONGED. So if I give a rapid acting insulin, serum glucose decreases, the insulin degrades...no rise in glucagon. The alpha cells are destroyed as well. This is the how I came to the answer and the best explanation. +3
melanoma  the answer is not correct +1
melanoma  his answer +1
prolific_pygophilic  I actually think this has some merit. I believe there is a U world question that talks about how very long history of T1DM (20 years in this patient) can progress to destruction of alpha cells and hence impaired release of glucagon and episodes of hypoglycemia. Thats how I reasoned it. The first answer is also possible. +1


search for anything NEW!