So you know that 65% of the data will fall within 1SD of the mean. So if you subtract 100-65 you will get 35. Which means that about 16% will fall above and 16% will fall below 1 SD. They are asking for how many will fall above 1 SD. I'm sure there is a better way of doing this, but thats how I got it lol.
sympathetikeyExcept according to FA, it's 68% within 1 SD, so 34%, which split in half is 17%.+22019-05-31T22:02:28Z
amirmullick3Sympathetikey check your math :D
100-68 is 32 not 34, and half of 32 is 16 :)+22019-08-31T02:52:30Z
lilyoCan anyone explain why we subtract 68 from 100? This makes me think that we are saying its 35% of the data that falls within 1SD as opposed to 65. HELLLLLLP+2019-11-14T23:46:24Z
sallz@Lilyo If you consider 1 SD, that includes 68% of the population (in this case, you're saying that 68% of the people are between 296 and 196 (1SD above and 1 below). This leaves how many people? 32% outside of that range (100-68=32); half of those would be above 296 and the other half below 296, so 16% +2019-11-16T07:15:48Z
to snoo-finity ... and beyond!
submitted by strugglebus(69), 2019-05-05T17:31:16Z
So you know that 65% of the data will fall within 1SD of the mean. So if you subtract 100-65 you will get 35. Which means that about 16% will fall above and 16% will fall below 1 SD. They are asking for how many will fall above 1 SD. I'm sure there is a better way of doing this, but thats how I got it lol.