Who else got this just because it said "all-night dance party?" Applied my knowledge of raves and nothing else.
Why on a?giwtens I emna I egt aytscsE is broylpab eht gdru of iohcce bferoe an all ithng edcan rpaty )l(lo tbu not'd dentsradnu wyh ehtre wuldo be dloc tixsemteeir nad no anewtsig ewnh si FA ti asys eerhtiayhrpm dan a?hbrdo???
DAMM si hte olyn locganluhein taht ahs spyiecmhtat ctaityvi sa it is rvdeide orfm aahsmehmpmtneeith ( oklo ta sit )enam ... ttha eislxnap tveeighyn.r
Ok I think this is a bad combination of 1) a poorly written question, 2) a potenital miss-understanding by the writer and, 3) a expectation for the recall of esoteric information complicated by the 8 hours which have elapsed since the ingestion
Here's what I think: 1) they done goofed by saying there is no diaphoresis. We have all seen what MDMA does to people's eccrine glands - moreover people drink ...a lot (thus causing the classic low Na which causes seizures) 2) It's weird that he would have tachycardia but none of the other sx of MDMA intoxication 3) I guess we are suppose to know and/ or reason that even though MDMA causes hyperthermia, it also has sympathetic effects (increased release/inhibited repute of adrenaline, norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine) which could cause the cold extremities
Sweating is mediated by the sympathetic nervous system, but is through Acetylcholine (Remember - Anti-Muscarinic poisoning = Dry as a bone because no sweating). It all points to NE overdose (mimicked by an amphetamine) --> Tachycardia (NE @ beta-1), Hypertensive (NE @ alpha-1), Pale + Cold = vasoconstriction (NE @ alpha-1)
Key point - sweating will not be stimulated by NMDA.
Not exactly sure why ketamine is NOT the answer (maybe it doesn't lead to peripheral vasoconstrictive properties)? But NMDA does fit the picture!