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 +16  (nbme20#35)

Fever -> rule out left ventricular failure TMP-SMX prophylaxis -> rule out Pneumocystis jiroveci Kidney transplant but no WBC/RBC in urine -> rule out transplant rejection

Leaving CMV and atypical mycobacterium as the remaining two options. CMV is more likely in a transplant patient.





Subcomments ...

submitted by mousie(84),

Why no sweating? I mean I get Ecstasy is probably the drug of choice before an all night dance party (lol) but don't understand why there would be cold extremities and no sweating when is FA it says hyperthermia and rhabdo????

sympathetikey  FA says, "euphoria, disinhibition, hyperactivity, distorted sensory and time perception, bruxism. Lifethreatening effects include hypertension, tachycardia, hyperthermia, hyponatremia, serotonin syndrome." So I think they wanted you to see Sinus Tachy and jump for MDMA. Idk why Ketamine couldn't also potentially be correct though. +2  
amorah  I picked ketamine because it said no diaphoresis. But if you need to find a reason, I guess the half life of ketamine might rule it out. Remember from sketchy, ketamine is used for anaesthesia induction, so probably won't keep the HR and BP high for 8 hrs. In fact, its action is ~10-15 mins-ish iv. +2  
yotsubato  Because the NBME is full of fuckers. The guy is probably dehydrated so he cant sweat anymore? +2  
fulminant_life  you wouldnt see tachycardia with ketamine. It causes cardiovascular depression but honestly i saw " all-night dance party" picked the mdma answer and moved on lol +3  
monkd  Ketamine acts as a sympathomimetic but oh well. NBME hasn't caught on to ketamine as a drug of recreation :) +  
usmleuser007  Why not LSD? +  
d_holles  @usmleuser007 LSD doesn't cause HTN and ↑ HR. +  
sbryant6  @fulminant_life FALSE. KETAMINE CAUSES CARDIOVASCULAR STIMULATION. +1  
dashou19  Take a look at why the patient has pale and cold extremities. "Mechanistic clinical studies indicate that the MDMA-induced elevations in body temperature in humans partially depend on the MDMA-induced release of norepinephrine and involve enhanced metabolic heat generation and cutaneous vasoconstriction, resulting in impaired heat dissipation." https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC5008716/ +  


submitted by keycompany(124),

Why would deposition of fibrinoid deposits (i.e. fibrinoid necrosis/malignant HTN) be wrong?

amorah  Kidney is smaller than normal, suggesting less blood flow to it. Won't see shrunken kidney in the case of HTN. +  


submitted by seagull(437),

The authors went out of their way to find thew worst photo of a granuloma they could. The threw on a stem that suggests that it would be granulation tisue. But little did we know...

amorah  I was between granulation tissue and granuloma. Then ruled out granulation tissue because this is a 10 week old wound. Assuming normal wound healing, granulation tissue would be replaced by type III collagen/resolution by 10 weeks. +4  
sbryant6  Got this right because the exact same question is in Uworld. +  
dubywow  Got baited... took my eye off the ball (and onto that worst photo ever) and missed the Ten week part. Granulation for the "L". +  


submitted by seagull(437),

Im also convinced blocking IL-2 is also a treatment? WHy is TNF-alpha the better answer here?

amorah  FA P120-122. Immunosuppressants for RA are calcineurin inhibitor (cyclosporine and tacrolimus), 6MP, and TNFa inhibitors (adalimumab,infliximab, etanercept). It is important to distinguish that calcineurin inhibitors block t cell activation by preventing IL-2 transcription, not necessarily block IL-2 action. Sirolimus(rapamycin) blocks IL-2 action but it is used for kidney transplant rejection prophylaxis specifically. +3  
sbryant6  Spot on. This image explains how Sirolimus blocks the effects of IL-2: https://image.slidesharecdn.com/11-150813013011-lva1-app6892/95/11immunosuppressants-30-638.jpg?cb=1439429471 +  


submitted by hayayah(416),

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome: Gastrin-secreting tumor (gastrinoma) of pancreas or duodenum.

hello  Can you please explain how gastrin relates to the physical exam findings in the patient? +  
amorah  I believe the logic behind it is patient has pain and black stool, suggesting peptic ulcer with bleeding. Since pain is not relieved by antiacid and H2 blockers, it suggests ectopic source to stimulate the excessive acid. Among all, gastrin by ZE syndrome fits the most. +4