share email twitter ⋅ join discord whatsapp(2ck)
free120  nbme24  nbme23  nbme22  nbme21  nbme20  nbme19  nbme18  nbme17  nbme16  nbme15  nbme13 

NBME 22 Answers

nbme22/Block 2/Question#20 (19.1 difficulty score)
A 26-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the ...

Login to comment/vote.

submitted by jackie_chan(16),

If estrogen is low and FSH/LH high, the problem at ovaries. FSH/LH both low so problem with the pituitary gland releasing FSH/LH or even higher up with GnRH in the hypothalamus. Best answer hypothalamus

submitted by mguan1993(8),
unscramble the site ⋅ remove ads ⋅ become a member ($39/month)

nca emeonso xapniel why teh erawns is tno dnaaelr nlga?d I lfee kie fi aanrled dlnag saw eht sesui rehte wodlu laso be ddaeescre etisrnacncnoot fo H,FS ,HL and terngeos ?rtghi

mguan1993  ^nvm had a brain fart and go adrenal gland mixed up with anterior pituitary lmao +4  
nor16  ovaries are #1 estrogen producer no estrogen no lubricant = dyspareunia no estrogen and no fsh/lh --> there must be a "higher" problem, up there in the brain +3  
pg32  I agree that hypothalamus is the most logical answer, but if she had overactivation of the adrenal gland (cortisol secreting tumor), that could also inhibit GnRH and cause these same symptoms. +  
drzed  @pg32 the physical examination would not be normal with either a ACTH or cortisol secreting tumor. +