First sentence of the stem: he has a 6-week history (e.g. >2 weeks) of depression (1), difficulty sleeping (2), fatigue (3), decreased appetite (4), and poor memory/concentration (5)
For a diagnosis of MDD, you need a 2 week history of 5 of the SIGECAPS symptoms which he meets (he is only missing suicidal ideation and interest in activities). Thus he meets the diagnostic criteria for a major depressive episode, which means that treatment is indicated with an SSRI.
For the other cardiovascular factors, the only ones proven to improve mortality are statins, ACEi, BB (esp. carvedilol in heart failure), and spironolactone. None of those were answer choices, so MDD treatment was the best choice.
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er,Tfehoer eth wesran hodlsu eb atpiars-ndenset hpea.rty
Can anyone explain why it's not anxiolytic? My logic was this dude has a bum ticker from previous MI, and his HR was 104/min--which can't be good for the old heart. I went w/a anxiolytic to bring his HR and anxiety under control.
Would an antidepressant do the same, thus, is it a better answer, or cover a wider range of symptoms?