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Comments ...

 +4  (nbme24#30)

Did no one notice that the Odds ratio on the top left is wrong? Am I missing something? If you calculate it, it's 6 just like the top right one....

mjmejora  thats actually really funny
yex  Because I said so, applies here... :-/
doodimoodi  Cant believe we pay $60 for this crap




Subcomments ...

submitted by celeste(32),

While the lifetime risk in the general population is just below 1%, it is 6.5% in first-degree relatives of patients and it rises to more than 40% in monozygotic twins of affected people. Analyzing classic studies of the genetics of schizophrenia done as early as in 1930s, Fischer concludes that a concordance rate for psychosis of about 50% in monozygotic twins seems to be a realistic estimate, which is significantly higher than that in dizygotic twins of about 10–19% (ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4623659/#ref3)

imnotarobotbut  How is one supposed to know this before having read this article? +3  
imgdoc  This question falls under the either you know it or you dont category. It isnt in FA or Uworld +  
jaxx  So why would these A-holes put it on there as if prepping for this exam isn't stressful enough :-| +  
doodimoodi  Lol just why seriously +  
champagnesupernova3  This was mentioned in the Kaplan behavioral videos +  


submitted by strugglebus(69),

Most of the pts values were normal. Drinking wasn't outrageous, LDL was mild, BMI has fine. He did have HTN though. The biggest risk factors are the fact that he had suffered an MI and started suffering severe depression (weight loss/anxiety). Thus, he is more at risk for suicide.

sohaib111  Won't having an MI be a very big risk factor for another one ? And also if they wanted this answer (the anti-depressant), why would they just add that his LDL is inreasing in the last sentence... +3  
dbg  bc they're SOBs and DOBs +3  
doodimoodi  Yeah, recommended LDL in people with previous heart problem is < 100 jeez +  
asingh  It is because of the timeframe of mortality is 2 yrs, everything else will affect later +  


submitted by doodimoodi(8),

Did no one notice that the Odds ratio on the top left is wrong? Am I missing something? If you calculate it, it's 6 just like the top right one....

mjmejora  thats actually really funny +  
yex  Because I said so, applies here... :-/ +  
doodimoodi  Cant believe we pay $60 for this crap +3  


submitted by hayayah(411),

A fractured cribriform plate (anterior skull trauma) can result in leaking of cerebrospinal fluid into the nose and loss of sense of smell. Smell plays a large role in the perception of taste. So, in practice, a patient may complain of loss of taste rather than of smell.

brownielove79  can it be a facial nerve??? with lateral head trauma (injury during passage through middle ear, or external auditory canal??) doubt!!! +  
doodimoodi  Olfaction is actually more important that tongue sensation in terms of food taste (think of how food tastes bland when you have a cold) +  
doodimoodi  than* +  
champagnesupernova3  If taste is completely lost then it's an olfactory issue. If its lost only on a part of the tongue then the nerve that provides taste to that area is suspected. +  


submitted by hayayah(411),

A fractured cribriform plate (anterior skull trauma) can result in leaking of cerebrospinal fluid into the nose and loss of sense of smell. Smell plays a large role in the perception of taste. So, in practice, a patient may complain of loss of taste rather than of smell.

brownielove79  can it be a facial nerve??? with lateral head trauma (injury during passage through middle ear, or external auditory canal??) doubt!!! +  
doodimoodi  Olfaction is actually more important that tongue sensation in terms of food taste (think of how food tastes bland when you have a cold) +  
doodimoodi  than* +  
champagnesupernova3  If taste is completely lost then it's an olfactory issue. If its lost only on a part of the tongue then the nerve that provides taste to that area is suspected. +  


submitted by vshummy(54),

So the best i could find was in First Aid 2019 pg 346 under Diabetic Ketoacidosis. The hyperglycemia and hyperkalemia cause an osmotic diuresis so the entire body gets depleted of fluids. Hence why part of the treatment for DKA is IV fluids. You might even rely on that piece of information alone to answer this question, that DKA is treated with IV fluids.

fulminant_life  I just dont understand how that is the cause of his altered state of consciousness. Why wouldnt altered affinity of oxygen from HbA1c be correct? A1C has a higher affinity for oxygen so wouldnt that be a better reason for him being unconscious? +3  
toupvote  HbA1c is more of a chronic process. It is a snapshot of three months. Also, people can have elevated A1c without much impact on their mental status. Other organs are affected sooner and to a greater degree than the brain. DKA is an acute issue. +1  
snafull  Can somebody please explain why 'Inability of neurons to perform glycolysis' is wrong? +1  
johnson  Probably because they're sustained on ketones. +1  
doodimoodi  @snafull glucose is very high in the blood, why would neurons not be able to use it? +1  
soph  @snafull maybe u are confusing bc DK tissues are unable to use the high glucose as it is unable to enter cells but I dont think thats the case in the neurons? +  
drmomo  https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2909073/ states its primarily due to acidosis along wth hyperosmolarity. so most relevant answer here would be dehydration +