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nbme23/Block 4/Question#6 (27.8 difficulty score)
A 35-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, ...
External anal sphincterπŸ”
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 +6 
submitted by aneurysmclip(135),

what I'm thinking is, normally the perineal body is cut during a posterior episiotomy. so reading over the question again, the last line "which is at greatest risk for damage IF this incision is TORN FURTHER during delivery" Torn further being the key imo.

as for why it isn't bulbospongiosus or ischocavernosis -> https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Transverse_perineal_muscles#/media/File:1116_Muscle_of_the_Female_Perineum.png

cbreland  why do I feel like this was supposed to be an easy question +  



 +5 
submitted by drschmoctor(82),

To remember the 4 degrees of perineal tears, you have to remember that.... when giving birth, vaginal tears are PAR for the course.

  • Vagina
  • Perineum
  • Anal sphincter
  • Rectum



 +1 
submitted by paloma(8),
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ihsT ihmgt hlep




 +0 
submitted by bigjimbo(46),
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yiioosEmtp si tuc orfm aiavgn ot teh eriplane oybd fro dchil rtbhi

btl_nyc  But why is it external anal sphincter instead of bulbospongiosus? Aren't both attached to perineal body? +1  
stinkysulfaeggs  Bulbospongiosus connects to either side of the perineal body. But if you go directly posterior rom the commissure you hit the anal sphincter +13  
need_answers  I just think about how women say they done ripped their asshole while giving birth +3