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submitted by g8427(0),

If some one can help me understand bc im a bit confused. I understand the thought process and I realized that this was an AR disease and I also got the 1/4 affected, 1/2 carrier and 1/4 unaffected. But I chose 0% bc I figured if it was an AR disease the 1 child already diseased was homozygous affected (1/4 affected). Which lead me to think that the other sister was either a carrier or not affected at all. Am I just over thinking this or am I not fully understanding whats going on?

rush  you have to think about each child individually, doesn't matter what the siblings have. The question states what are the odds of the child getting the disease. So regardless of the other siblings it still is Mom (1/2) dad (1/2) which makes it 1/4 AR +  
titanesxvi  But how do we know that the parents are heterozygous for the mutation +  
need_answers  we know that the parents have to be heterozygous Aa X Aa because on a 2x2 table, the only way the daughter could be homozygous for an AR is by having both parents be carriers (Aa) so the question was asking what are the chances the sister has the same alleles (aa) and there is only a 25% of having the same alleles. +  


submitted by sympathetikey(316),

Any time you see fixed wide splitting of S2, smash ASD.

someduck3  I'm not 100% about this so take it with a grain of salt. But i was confused about why there would be a systolic murmur. I think its b/c prolonged ASD would eventually cause pulmonic stenosis which would present as a systolic murmur. But besides that I super agree with @sympathetikey +  
need_answers  https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=7hzabZ7YBr0 -smash, smash, smuh-ash +1  


submitted by bigjimbo(7),

Episiotomy is cut from vagina to the perineal body for child birth

btl_nyc  But why is it external anal sphincter instead of bulbospongiosus? Aren't both attached to perineal body? +  
stinkysulfaeggs  Bulbospongiosus connects to either side of the perineal body. But if you go directly posterior rom the commissure you hit the anal sphincter +4  
need_answers  I just think about how women say they done ripped their asshole while giving birth +  


submitted by jrod77(12),

I think they might be describing angina...not sure. TXA2 is responsible for platelet aggregation,so it may be contributing to thrombosis, thus ischemia to the cardiac tissue.

sympathetikey  Agreed. I'm pissed though because PGE2 mediates pain, which is why I picked it. +8  
he.sanchez14  If im not mistaken, the question describes unstable angina. Unstable angina is due to thrombosis with incomplete occlusion. So, yes TXA2 is responsible for the thrombus that is causing the symptoms in this patient. I'm also pissed because I also went straight for the PGE2 +  
vik  hahah, seems like all in same boat like me +  
yb_26  thromboxane A2 is also vasoconstrictor, so my thoughts were about vasospastic angina +  
shriya goyal  same I went for pgE2 ... I M PISSED +  
shriya goyal  same I went for pgE2 ... I M PISSED +  
youssefa  Went for PGE2 ... shit +  
need_answers  I went for leukotriene B4, what the hell was I doing....SHIT +1  
hopsalong  I picked Leukotrine B4 thinking that the neutrophil infiltration was the source of the pain, seems wrong lol. +  
bballhandler11  Sometimes it helps me to think of it in a general, non med school textbook kind of way. When answering, I narrowed it down to PGE2 and TXA2 as well. Then I asked myself, if someone is experiencing chest pain, would I recommend Aspirin or Advil? That's helped on a few over the counter pharm questions. +1  
ususmle  same here I M PISSED PGE2 +  
krewfoo99  Maybe PGE2 isint the answer because it mediates pain and fever during episodes of acute inflammation? Thus making TXA2 more likely. +  


submitted by sympathetikey(316),

Pretty straightforward, but a good reminder that myelofibrosis can cause an enlarged spleen.

sympathetikey  Due to extramedullary hematopoesis +3  
zoggybiscuits  I thought it was spleen but the fact that hematocrit was 24% 4 HOURs later made me think otherwise. It was my understanding that the spleen would bleed you out quick! +  
need_answers  couldn't also be ruptured spleen because they said intraperitoneal fluid and everything else is retroperitoneal ?? +