UWorld Step 1 Qbank: Your world of learning. Subscribe now.
Welcome to jrod77's page.
Contributor score: 21

Comments ...

 +2  (nbme23#48)

Azoles inhibit cytochrome P450 enzyme that converts lanosterol to ergosterol.

this is the best treatment indicated for candida.

 +6  (nbme23#1)

I think they might be describing angina...not sure. TXA2 is responsible for platelet aggregation,so it may be contributing to thrombosis, thus ischemia to the cardiac tissue.

sympathetikey  Agreed. I'm pissed though because PGE2 mediates pain, which is why I picked it.
he.sanchez14  If im not mistaken, the question describes unstable angina. Unstable angina is due to thrombosis with incomplete occlusion. So, yes TXA2 is responsible for the thrombus that is causing the symptoms in this patient. I'm also pissed because I also went straight for the PGE2
vik  hahah, seems like all in same boat like me
yb_26  thromboxane A2 is also vasoconstrictor, so my thoughts were about vasospastic angina
shriya goyal  same I went for pgE2 ... I M PISSED
shriya goyal  same I went for pgE2 ... I M PISSED
youssefa  Went for PGE2 ... shit
need_answers  I went for leukotriene B4, what the hell was I doing....SHIT
hopsalong  I picked Leukotrine B4 thinking that the neutrophil infiltration was the source of the pain, seems wrong lol.
bballhandler11  Sometimes it helps me to think of it in a general, non med school textbook kind of way. When answering, I narrowed it down to PGE2 and TXA2 as well. Then I asked myself, if someone is experiencing chest pain, would I recommend Aspirin or Advil? That's helped on a few over the counter pharm questions.
ususmle  same here I M PISSED PGE2
krewfoo99  Maybe PGE2 isint the answer because it mediates pain and fever during episodes of acute inflammation? Thus making TXA2 more likely.
djtallahassee  ditto on the looked at it for 2 seconds and went PGE2

 +11  (nbme23#17)

The systolic pressure difference between the left ventricle and the aorta in this pt. is pretty significant, Whereas in a normal heart those systolic pressures should be just about equal. This hints at the fact that the left ventricle has to put in alot of work to push through the aortic valve. That extra pressure goes into opening the valve and does not appear in the aorta.

divya  why is left atrial pressure normal while pulm arterial and right ventricular pressures are high?

Subcomments ...

submitted by seagull(839),

Did anyone think that influenza was right? I understand that Herpes-Z can cause pneumonia but why is this answer better over influenza?

jrod77  I believe it's the vesicular rash that gives it away. I thought it was influenza too, but i re-read the questions and I realized they included a rash which disqualifies influenza. +2  
charcot_bouchard  Also h/o of immunsupression, disseminated VZV. Influenza itself doesnt cause severe disease. secondary PNA does. which u will see in elderly. usually +1  

UWorld Step 1 Qbank: Your world of learning. Subscribe now.