Welcome to jrod77's page.
Contributor score: 21
Agreed. I'm pissed though because PGE2 mediates pain, which is why I picked it.
If im not mistaken, the question describes unstable angina. Unstable angina is due to thrombosis with incomplete occlusion. So, yes TXA2 is responsible for the thrombus that is causing the symptoms in this patient. I'm also pissed because I also went straight for the PGE2
hahah, seems like all in same boat like me
thromboxane A2 is also vasoconstrictor, so my thoughts were about vasospastic angina
I went for leukotriene B4, what the hell was I doing....SHIT
I picked Leukotrine B4 thinking that the neutrophil infiltration was the source of the pain, seems wrong lol.
Sometimes it helps me to think of it in a general, non med school textbook kind of way. When answering, I narrowed it down to PGE2 and TXA2 as well. Then I asked myself, if someone is experiencing chest pain, would I recommend Aspirin or Advil? That's helped on a few over the counter pharm questions.
Maybe PGE2 isint the answer because it mediates pain and fever during episodes of acute inflammation? Thus making TXA2 more likely.
ditto on the looked at it for 2 seconds and went PGE2
why is left atrial pressure normal while pulm arterial and right ventricular pressures are high?
I believe it's the vesicular rash that gives it away. I thought it was influenza too, but i re-read the questions and I realized they included a rash which disqualifies influenza.
Also h/o of immunsupression, disseminated VZV. Influenza itself doesnt cause severe disease. secondary PNA does. which u will see in elderly. usually