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Contributor score: 8
Comments ...
anjum
It's probably simpler to just memorize treatment as:
chlamydia: azithromycin
gonorrhea: ceftriaxone
It's correct and won't trip you up on pregnant women questions
+1
Subcomments ...
zpatel
What about telogen effluvium? psychological stress-related hair loss.
+1
elephantbuddy
Just to add on, telogen effluvium is usually due to physical stressors such as surgery, pregnancy, serious illnesses, or severe/life-threatening psychological stress. So although this patient is going through psychological stress, it's not exactly life-threatening enough to result in hair loss unless personally inflicted. I think the question stem also kind of hints at trichotillomania with her doing more things to her hair.
But this article is pretty useful in distinguishing between different causes of hair loss: https://www.aafp.org/afp/2003/0701/p93.html#sec-4
+1
elephantbuddy
I was stuck on that too, but I think that measles more commonly presents with a maculopapular rash whereas a vesicular rash is more typical of VZV.
+3
elephantbuddy
I think that the hepatosplenomegaly is definitely a common characteristic but you would see more bone abnormalities in Gaucher. This patient has no bone crises and exhibits developmental delay, HSM, and foam cells which is more characteristic of Niemann-Pick.
+2
In addition to all the great points already made, FA also says that Azithromycin is first-line and favored in general because it's a one-time treatment. You would use doxy though to treat lymphogranuloma venereum (FA 2019 and 2020, pg 148-149).
Neisseria gonorrhea - ceftriaxone
Chlamydia - azithromycin (1st line); doxycycline (2nd line, or for LGV)