need help with your account or subscription? click here to email us (or see the contact page)
join telegramNEW! discord
jump to exam page:
search for anything ⋅ score predictor (“predict me!”)

Welcome to step1forthewin’s page.
Contributor score: 2


Comments ...

 +1  visit this page (nbme24#5)
get full access to all contentbecome a member

Can someone please clarify the answer. Is decreased adherence same as decreased aggregation? Wouldn;t inhibition of the IIb/IIIa receptor prevent aggregation?

get full access to all contentbecome a member
xxabi  I'm not completely sure...but I think its because its aspirin, and aspirin doesn't work on IIb/IIIa receptors. That's why i picked decreased adherence of platelets, figured that was the closest thing to decreased aggregation that still made sense with aspirin's mechanism of action. Hope that helps! +2
ihavenolife  Aspirin irreversibly inhibits COX which leads to decreased TXA2. TXA2 normally is a vasoconstrictor and induces platelet aggregation, so aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation by downplaying TXA2 not by interacting with IIb/IIIa receptor. (Source FA and UWorld) +22
fallenistand  In this case, inhibition of COX-1 by aspirin will also reduce the amount of precursors for vascular prostacyclin synthesis, provided, for example, from adhering platelets https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/9263351 +1
niboonsh  inhibition of IIb/IIIa receptor is the moa of a completely separate class of drugs - Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa (abciximab, eptifabide, tirofiban) +1
t123  Bad question - TXA2 upregulates GpIIb/IIIa on platelets. So aspirin inhibits their expression. +1




Subcomments ...

get full access to all contentbecome a member

Why would it not be anemia of chronic disease with decreased serum transferrin concentration?

get full access to all contentbecome a member
lispectedwumbologist  Nevermind I'm stupid as fuck I see my mistake +2
drdoom  be kind to yourself, doc! (it's a long road we're on!) +21
step1forthewin  Hi, can someone explain the blood smear? isn't it supposed to show hypersegmented neutrophils if it was B12 deficiency? +1
loftybirdman  I think the blood smear is showing a lone lymphocyte, which should be the same size as a normal RBC. You can see the RBCs in this smear are bigger than that ->macrocytic ->B12 deficiency +25
seagull  maybe i'm new to the game. but isn't the answer folate deficiency and not B12? Also, i though it was anemia of chronic disease as well. +
vshummy  Lispectedwumbologist, please explain your mistake? Lol because that seems like a respectible answer to me... +9
gonyyong  It's a B12 deficiency Ileum is where B12 is reabsorbed, folate is jejunum The blood smear is showing enlarged RBCs Methionine synthase does this conversion, using cofactor B12 +2
uslme123  Anemia of chronic disease is a microcytic anemia -- I believe this is why they put a lymphocyte on the side -- so we could see that it was a macrocytic anemia. +4
yotsubato  Thanks NBME, that really helped me.... +1
keshvi  the question was relatively easy, but the picture was so misguiding i felt! i thought it looked like microcytic RBCs. I guess the key is, that they clearly mentioned distal ileum. and that is THE site for B12 absorption. +6
sahusema  I didn't even register that was a lymphocyte. I thought I was seeing target cells so I was confused AF +
drschmoctor  Leave it to NBME to find the palest macrocytes on the planet. +5
zevvyt  so i guess size is more important than color cause those are hypochromatic as fuck +
yesa  The NUCLEUS of a lymphocyte should be the same size as a normal RBC, which is not the case here. Under normal circumstances RBCs are not as big as lymphocytes, so this is truly extraordinary = megaloblastic anemia. +1
weirdmed51  @yesa you mean ‘macrocytic’. For it to be ‘megaloblastic’ there had to be a hypersegmented neutrophil. +


search for anything NEW!