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Retired NBME Step 2 CK Form 6 Answers

step2ck_form6/Block 1/Question#38 (reveal difficulty score)
A previously healthy 32-year-old woman comes ...
Inhaled ฮฒ2-adrenergic agonist ๐Ÿ” / ๐Ÿ“บ / ๐ŸŒณ / ๐Ÿ“–
tags: pulm marked

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 +3  upvote downvote
submitted by โˆ—derpymd(20)
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She has some sort of reactive airway disease, intermittent in nature, given that it was exacerbated by an URI.

First line treatment for intermittent bronchospasm (evidenced by her bilateral wheezing) is short-acting beta-agonists, according to uptodate.

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submitted by โˆ—sugaplum(487)
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sounds like she has acute bronchitis; which is like inflammation/irritation of the airway, so there is narrowing Beta agonist will decrease the inflammation and open the airways up

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boeboeboe  I think she more likely has asthma. Cough is worse at night and worse with physical activity. Key findings on exam: end-expiratory wheezes bilaterally. Responsive to b2-agonists. +3
keyseph  There was a UWORLD question very similar to this that said the diagnosis was acute bronchitis. The next best step according to UWORLD was also to start empiric therapy with bronchodilators. So either way, the answer would be a SABA. +4



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submitted by โˆ—drmohandes(193)
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Patient with a recent URI, now a persistent productive cough without fever and clean CXR.

This is classic acute bronchitis.

Tx = supportive (NSAIDs + bronchodilators)

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submitted by โˆ—charcot_bouchard(574)
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It's not asthma. Asthma would have longer history..subacute to chronic i.e >3 weeks. Its AB. mild wheezing no added lung sounds. AB lasting >5days to 3 weeks

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submitted by โˆ—jlbae(159)
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I got bronchitis.... ain't nobody got time for that!

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