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NBME 21 Answers

nbme21/Block 1/Question#42 (35.9 difficulty score)
A 36-year-old woman undergoes a total ...
Hyperplasia🔍
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 +5  upvote downvote
submitted by nor16(49),
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pdtGooahsorn are teh HHF/LS ncdirpuog aitryiutp s.lecl N o saivr,eo no ehsrn,omo on fbeacekd h.intiiboin

lovebug  THX for great explanation. When I first saw this question, I mistook the gonadotrophs for endometrial cell. so I Choose atrophy. (even that pt undergoes a total hysterectomy) critical mistake... +  



 +2  upvote downvote
submitted by beeip(116),
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v[dome to cmnmso]tube




This can be analogized to menopause. Lack of estrogen ––> no negative feedback to anterior pituitary ––> increased levels of FSH and LH




 +1  upvote downvote
submitted by halux(4),
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nac emos eon eeslap apenlix hyw is hte ryasape?plih

beeip  Loss of negative feedback from resected ovaries leads to gonadotroph hyperplasia. +2  
halux  so, the explanation is that in the absence of Estrogen negative feedback inhibition to LH and FSH, this leads to Gonadotrophs Hyperplasia at the Pituitary resulting in elevated LH and FSH secretion levels? I get busted by this one :/ Thanks in advance! +4  
nala_ula  @halux exactly, there's no negative feedback telling them there is an increase in the hormones (since there are no ovaries) so gonadotrophs work in overdrive to keep stimulating the gonads via FSH and LH. +  



 -1  upvote downvote
submitted by halux(4),
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doe[mv ot etbmu]sconm