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NBME 21 Answers

nbme21/Block 1/Question#42

A 36-year-old woman undergoes a total hysterectomy ...

Hyperplasia

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 +1  upvote downvote
submitted by halux(2),

can some one please explain why is the hyperplasia?

beeip  Loss of negative feedback from resected ovaries leads to gonadotroph hyperplasia. +1  
halux  so, the explanation is that in the absence of Estrogen negative feedback inhibition to LH and FSH, this leads to Gonadotrophs Hyperplasia at the Pituitary resulting in elevated LH and FSH secretion levels? I get busted by this one :/ Thanks in advance! +1  
nala_ula  @halux exactly, there's no negative feedback telling them there is an increase in the hormones (since there are no ovaries) so gonadotrophs work in overdrive to keep stimulating the gonads via FSH and LH. +  




 +1  upvote downvote
submitted by beeip(63),

[moved to subcomment]





 +1  upvote downvote
submitted by nor16(10),

Gonadotrophs are the FSH/LH producing pituitary cells. No ovaries, no hormones, no feedback inhibition.





 +0  upvote downvote
submitted by halux(2),

[moved to subcomment]





one does not simply “walk into morder”