NBME 21 Hyperplasia (NBME Answers)

Retired NBME 21 Answers

nbme21/Block 1/Question#42 (reveal difficulty score)
A 36-year-old woman undergoes a total ...
Hyperplasia 🔍 / 📺 / 🌳 / 📖
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+8 upvote downvote
submitted by ∗nor16(70)

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Gonadotrophs are the FSH/LH producing pituitary cells. No ovaries, no hormones, no feedback inhibition.

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lovebug THX for great explanation. When I first saw this question, I mistook the gonadotrophs for endometrial cell. so I Choose atrophy. (even that pt undergoes a total hysterectomy) critical mistake... +5

+3 upvote downvote
submitted by ∗paperbackwriter(161)

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This can be analogized to menopause. Lack of estrogen ––> no negative feedback to anterior pituitary ––> increased levels of FSH and LH

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+2 upvote downvote
submitted by ∗beeip(141)

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[moved to subcomment]

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+1 upvote downvote
submitted by halux(14)

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can some one please explain why is the hyperplasia?

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beeip Loss of negative feedback from resected ovaries leads to gonadotroph hyperplasia. +2

halux so, the explanation is that in the absence of Estrogen negative feedback inhibition to LH and FSH, this leads to Gonadotrophs Hyperplasia at the Pituitary resulting in elevated LH and FSH secretion levels? I get busted by this one :/ Thanks in advance! +14

nala_ula @halux exactly, there's no negative feedback telling them there is an increase in the hormones (since there are no ovaries) so gonadotrophs work in overdrive to keep stimulating the gonads via FSH and LH. +1

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submitted by ∗blue4415(4)

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can Gonadotrophs “hyperplasia” rather than hypertrophy?

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kevinsinghkang wondering the same +

escherichia95 Hormonal stimulation will lead to production of new cells from stem cells i.e. hyperplasia. Hypertrophy is gene activation, protein synthesis and production of organelles. +

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submitted by halux(14)

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[moved to subcomment]

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