NBME 21 Answers ↦
(35.9 difficulty score)
A 36-year-old woman undergoes a total ...
THX for great explanation.
When I first saw this question, I mistook the gonadotrophs for endometrial cell. so I Choose atrophy. (even that pt undergoes a total hysterectomy) critical mistake...
Loss of negative feedback from resected ovaries leads to gonadotroph hyperplasia.
so, the explanation is that in the absence of Estrogen negative feedback inhibition to LH and FSH, this leads to Gonadotrophs Hyperplasia at the Pituitary resulting in elevated LH and FSH secretion levels?
I get busted by this one :/
Thanks in advance!
@halux exactly, there's no negative feedback telling them there is an increase in the hormones (since there are no ovaries) so gonadotrophs work in overdrive to keep stimulating the gonads via FSH and LH.