Welcome to skinnynomore’s page.
Contributor score: 15
Comments ...
gonyyong
I think the distribution half-life and elimination half-life was saying that by the time you checked, it had fully distributed (10 half-lifes) and had not been cleared yet (super long half-life)
+18
soph
1000ug= 1mg and 1g=1000000ug
so then 4ug/ml * 1g/ 1000000ug= 0.000004 g/ml
0.000004g/ml * 1000ml/L= 0.004 g/L
80mg*1g/1000mg= 0.08 g
vd= 0.08g/ 0.04g/l =20L
+6
tiredofstudying
Or, like a normal human, convert 4ug/mL into mg/L ... which is 4 mg/L. 80mg/4mg/L is 20L.
+28
corgilobacter
I hate NBME... I thought these stupid conversions were over after undergrad. Nope.
+2
yesa
You do 1000000000s of these a day if you do any type of labwork o.O You just get used to it eventually
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Subcomments ...
skinnynomore
alcoholic in the hx should point you towards avascular necrosis when there is an “atraumatic” complaint
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skinnynomore
this kid has chronic pyelonephritis due to recurrent UTIs (VUR/hydronephrosis is a risk factor). And -itis = inflammation. That was my take on it.
+3
They’re giving a lot of confusing extra information here, maybe to trip us up. They just want volume of distribution, simple as that.
Vd = [drug administered] ÷ [plasma drug concentration]First convert it all to
g/Lbecause this is how the answer will be:administered:
80 mg = 0.08 gplasma concentration:4 ug/ml = 0.004 g/LThus,
Vd = 0.08 grams ÷ 0.004 g/L = 20 L
Clearance of drug is not a huge factor because the half life is so long that the drug is distributing before significant clearance occurs.