welcome redditors!to snoo-finity ... and beyond!

NBME 20 Answers

nbme20/Block 1/Question#39

A 3-month-old boy is brought to the office by his ...

Lateral to the inferior epigastric artery and superior to the inguinal ligament

Login to comment/vote.

 +3  upvote downvote
submitted by hayayah(447),

Inguinal hernias are usually reducible, femoral hernias are not.

This is an indirect inguinal hernia. It enters internal inguinal ring lateral to inferior epigastric vessels and is superior to the inguinal ligament.

Caused by failure of processus vaginalis to close (can form hydrocele). May be noticed in infants or discovered in adulthood. Much more common in males.

yotsubato  Heres a good picture to help with the concept. https://www.google.com/url?sa=i&source=images&cd=&ved=2ahUKEwjVkIi0yN7iAhWLjqQKHbeXCTUQjRx6BAgBEAU&url=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.herniaclinic.co.nz%2Finformation%2Ftypes-of-hernias%2F&psig=AOvVaw2BzGtQLvSmUN8ymhdvETG5&ust=1560244112252834 +2  
sbryant6  Note that direct inguinal hernias typically happen in older adults. This question presents a younger baby, so it is more like to be indirect. +1