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submitted by madojo(93),

FA 19 256

Does the drug SWIM? Phase 1 - small number of volunteers assess for Safety Phase 2 - moderate number of patients, does it Work Phase 3 - large number random assignment, with placebo, any Improvement? Phase 4 - hit the market, any unexpected side effects, can be withdrawn from Market

kpjk  just would like to make a small correction phase 3- not placebo, but a drug already present in market so to test if there is improvement over standard care phase 2- would have the placebo, to see if the drug is actually working thats why i got confused in this question couldnt phase 2 also have randomized,prospective double blinded study +2  
kpjk  Sorry! Just saw FA- it says even placebo can be used in phase 3 +1  
llamastep1  Ugh I over thought it, I figured if you wanna give your patient a new treatment you wouldn't send her to possibly receive PLACEBO, am I the only who thought this? +  
turtlepenlight  for the vast majority of drugs, the FDA / NIH don't allow placebo testing anymore (regardless of FA!) +  


submitted by yotsubato(644),

So for Candida we can use

Azoles (fluconazole) (inhibit CYP450 demethylation)

Amphotercin B (pore formation in fungal cell membrane)

Caspofungin (prevent crosslinking of beta glucans in cell wall)

or Nysatin for oral or esophageal cases (pore formation)

This question is saying that she is taking an ORAL drug to treat candida vaginitis.

Amphotercin is IV

Caspofungin is also IV

so we're left with azoles

Azoles inhibit synthesis of ergosterol by inhibiting CYP 450 that converts lanosterol to ergosterol.

qball  Nystatin does treat vaginal candidiasis but is TOPICAL. +  
thotcandy  Nystatin is NOT for esophageal candidiasis, Swish and spit, not swallow. +1  
staghorn  Me - picks Metronidazole -_- +  
alexxxx30  @thotcandy...actually you can swish and swallow nystatin for esophageal infections (per Sketchy micro candida sketch) +1  
turtlepenlight  I have seen that on the wards so I hope it works! +  
fexx  and my smartass picks amphp B +  


submitted by taway(22),

Just as a note for anybody else who was WTF at how 2(29/30)(30/30) = 1/15...a lot of question banks round 29/30 (or any similarly large fraction) out to 1

gh889  I think you meant 2(29/30)(1/30) just to clarify! +5  
niboonsh  i am confusion +1  
arkmoses  You have to use the hardy weinberg formula (1=p^2+2qp+q^2)and p + q = 1 they basically tell you that q^2=1/900 which makes q=1/30 now you can figure out (p=1-q) so p=1-(1/30), p=29/30 then to figure out carrier you solve for 2qp, 2(29/30)(1/30)=1/15 I got it wrong cuz I forgot how to figure out p but hopefully wont happen on the real deal. +4  
garibay92  2pq= 2(29/30)(1/30).... Transform this to 2 1 1 2 1 x x = _ = ____ 1 1 30 30 15 +  
garibay92  Nevermind :/ It didn't come out as planned :( +  
garibay92  /Users/carlosgutierrez/Desktop/IMG_2423.jpg +  
pg32  How do we know this disease is autosomal recessive? I assumed it was just because they love these carrier frequency questions with AR diseases, but how do we know it's AR? +  
turtlepenlight  Sounds like Gaucher (ish?) if i'm remembering correctly +2  


submitted by hyoscyamine(47),

FA pg.372. Squamous cell carcinoma occurs in the upper 2/3 of esophagus whereas adenocarcinoma occurs in the distal 1/3. Since this was in the mid esophagus, its squamous cell carcinoma. Key feature of squamous cell carcinoma is keratin pearls.

turtlepenlight  can remember it as wearing a pearl necklace (upper 2/3 of throat-ish) +3  
baja_blast  Patient is also a heavy smoker and drinker. In the absence of GERD this should raise suspicion for SCC of esophagus over Adenocarcinoma. +  


submitted by neonem(451),

Major risk factor for aortic dissection is hypertension, and in this case might be due to cocaine use, which causes marked hypertension. Dissections cause a tear in the tunica intima -- blood can flow backwards into the pericardium and cause tamponade. This manifests as crackles in the lung due to poor left ventricular function (filling/diastolic problem due to compression).

forerofore  there is another clue, the man has diminished pulses in just one arm, which means that the left subclavian artery must be involved somehow, and an aortic dissection would be the best answer explaining this. +8  
temmy  please why is there where a diastolic mumur? +1  
whoissaad  @temmy Aortic dissection especially near the root of aorta can lead to dilatation of the aortic valves, which can lead to Aortic regurgitation (diastoic murmur at left sternal border) +8  
garibay92  Does anyone know why is this patient's tepmerature elevated? +1  
ratadecalle  @garibay92, not important for this question I think but cocaine can cause malignant hyperthermia +1  
almondbreeze  judging by his heart murmur, he probably has marfan syndrome. that's the only place where FA talks about dissecting aneurysm +  
almondbreeze  he's only 28 - another clue for marfan? +  
turtlepenlight  did anyone else think it was weird his only sx was SOB? I always think of radiating pain as being a good clue for dissection +1  
cmun777  @almondbreeze his heart murmur is at the LSB (aortic regurg) and not consistent with MVP plus no other sx/indication of Marfan. I think the only association of RF you should think about in this question is the cocaine use and consequent HTN. +1  
ibestalkinyo  @turtlepenlight I agree. I chose another answer because I was like, there's no way this guy doesn't hurt if he's got a dissection. +  


submitted by soph(44),

all the other options pt would have uterus, ovaries. turners they wouldnt look normal and they would have atrophic ovaries.

turtlepenlight  This makes sense, but I was thrown off by the "normal-appearing" b/c wouldn't AIS pts not have pubic hair? +  
drzed  They just say it's a normal appearing 17 year old girl; not that the external genitalia are normal appearing. +1  
teepot123  fa 19 pg 625 +  


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