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Contributor score: 6
just would like to make a small correction
phase 3- not placebo, but a drug already present in market
so to test if there is improvement over standard care
phase 2- would have the placebo, to see if the drug is actually working
thats why i got confused in this question
couldnt phase 2 also have randomized,prospective double blinded study
Sorry! Just saw FA- it says even placebo can be used in phase 3
Ugh I over thought it, I figured if you wanna give your patient a new treatment you wouldn't send her to possibly receive PLACEBO, am I the only who thought this?
for the vast majority of drugs, the FDA / NIH don't allow placebo testing anymore (regardless of FA!)
Nystatin does treat vaginal candidiasis but is TOPICAL.
Nystatin is NOT for esophageal candidiasis, Swish and spit, not swallow.
Me - picks Metronidazole -_-
@thotcandy...actually you can swish and swallow nystatin for esophageal infections (per Sketchy micro candida sketch)
I have seen that on the wards so I hope it works!
and my smartass picks amphp B
I think you meant 2(29/30)(1/30) just to clarify!
You have to use the hardy weinberg formula (1=p^2+2qp+q^2)and p + q = 1 they basically tell you that q^2=1/900 which makes q=1/30 now you can figure out (p=1-q) so p=1-(1/30), p=29/30 then to figure out carrier you solve for 2qp, 2(29/30)(1/30)=1/15 I got it wrong cuz I forgot how to figure out p but hopefully wont happen on the real deal.
2pq= 2(29/30)(1/30).... Transform this to 2 1 1 2 1
x x = _ = ____
1 1 30 30 15
Nevermind :/ It didn't come out as planned :(
How do we know this disease is autosomal recessive? I assumed it was just because they love these carrier frequency questions with AR diseases, but how do we know it's AR?
Sounds like Gaucher (ish?) if i'm remembering correctly
can remember it as wearing a pearl necklace (upper 2/3 of throat-ish)
Patient is also a heavy smoker and drinker. In the absence of GERD this should raise suspicion for SCC of esophagus over Adenocarcinoma.
there is another clue, the man has diminished pulses in just one arm, which means that the left subclavian artery must be involved somehow, and an aortic dissection would be the best answer explaining this.
please why is there where a diastolic mumur?
@temmy Aortic dissection especially near the root of aorta can lead to dilatation of the aortic valves, which can lead to Aortic regurgitation (diastoic murmur at left sternal border)
Does anyone know why is this patient's tepmerature elevated?
@garibay92, not important for this question I think but cocaine can cause malignant hyperthermia
judging by his heart murmur, he probably has marfan syndrome. that's the only place where FA talks about dissecting aneurysm
he's only 28 - another clue for marfan?
did anyone else think it was weird his only sx was SOB? I always think of radiating pain as being a good clue for dissection
@almondbreeze his heart murmur is at the LSB (aortic regurg) and not consistent with MVP plus no other sx/indication of Marfan. I think the only association of RF you should think about in this question is the cocaine use and consequent HTN.
@turtlepenlight I agree. I chose another answer because I was like, there's no way this guy doesn't hurt if he's got a dissection.
This makes sense, but I was thrown off by the "normal-appearing" b/c wouldn't AIS pts not have pubic hair?
They just say it's a normal appearing 17 year old girl; not that the external genitalia are normal appearing.