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Felty syndrome, an extraarticular manifestation of RA. Symptoms include a triad of RA, splenomegaly and neutropenia. It's in FA, you just have to squint (look at the fine print under the RA vs OA table in the MSK section).
Incarcerated hernia. If the contents of the hernia become trapped in the weak point in the abdominal wall, it can obstruct the bowel, leading to severe pain, nausea, vomiting, and the inability to have a bowel movement or pass gas.
Like really? Why is he not in pain?
I thought that inguinal hernias were reducible?
could be a femoral hernia as they are more likely to cause incarceration. They do, however, present more often in females. (FA 2019- 364)
incarcerated, not strangulated, thus no pain as there's no serious tissue damage/ischemia. Incarcerated hernias may progress to strangulated in which case he would have pain
Under section, "complications"
You just have to know that POMC is a pro-protein that must be cleaved; not sure if there’s anything in the stem that would really have given it away.
Dunno if this helps, but it says "this protein" (singular) is the precursor of two different protein products. This must mean that the modification occurs after the protein is made, which means after transcription and splicing has already happened.
Also I believe mRNA refers to after the splicing already occurs. If the protein products are from the same mRNA then it can't be alternate splicing.
They're cleaved by tissue-specific proteases
Alternative splicing occurs with hnRNA not mRNA. You get mRNA from alternatively splicing the hnRNA. an mRNA can only make 1 type of protein.
Since the question says the 2 proteins comes from the same mRNA it cannot be alternative splice or post transcriptional mod. FA 2018 page 43 has a good illustration.
Why can it not be arterial hypertension?
I think Arterial HTN is referring to Pulmonary Artery HTN which would be present in LT HF in the long run with RT HF and edema. Pulm HTN would cause a backflow, and doesn't really answer the question "explain the patients Dyspnea". At least, that's how I saw it. Hope this helped.
the question has 2 murmurs, so does she have aortic stenosis too?
i guess it is not relevant since it asked for what is causing her SOB
Would never have thought of that. Thanks
that's messed up dog
Excess carotene in what way? sorry if thats a stupid question
this is directly from Goljan
"Dietary β-carotenes and retinol esters are sources of retinol. β-carotenes are converted into retinol. (a) Increased β-carotenes in the diet cause the skin to turn yellow (hypercarotenemia). Sclera remains white, whereas in jaundice the sclera is yellow, which can be used to distinguish the two conditions. (c) Vitamin toxicity does not occur with an increase in serum carotene"
β-Carotenes are present in dark-green and yellow vegetables.
Mine would beg to differ >:O
Where would I have come across something like this (FA, Pathoma, or out of my S)?
How do we know the parents are not homozygous
Chances are they are not unless they had or are incestuous
Isn't the femoral nerve innervated by L2-4?
Would pheo have a normal resting BP though?
I was trying to justify these tricky questions but very true medschul.. It shouldn't have normal resting BP. Sometimes it seems these NBME always have a trick up their sleeve. Im getting paranoid lol
The reason why the patient probably has normal HTN is because Pheochromocytoma has symptoms that occurs in "spells" - they come and go. Apparently in that moment, when the physician is examining her, she doesn't have the HTN, but like @meningitis explained, so many adrenergic hormones around leads to double the vasoconstriction when the patient stands up.
Thank you @nala_ula for your contribution! Really filled in the gap Iwas missing.
No problem! Thank you for all your contributions throughout this page!
My problem with this question is that a strawberry hemangioma should continue to grow until 5-8 yrs old so I did not see the answer choice "Continued enlargement as the child grows" would not be an acceptable answer as well.
I think the best way to answer this question was by process of elimination.
Haha I eliminated the answer by process of elimination.
I eliminated thiazides by process of elimination :(
Shit I eliminated thiazides because of elimination went with HTN thinking intercranial bleed effecting the pituitary
Wouldn't Fanconi syndrome also cause hypokalemia though?
Especially considering the fact that the DCT will be working in overdrive to compensate for lost solutes???
This question did not make sense to me at all. I knew it was Fanconi syndrome yet didn't select the obvious answer because it said "follow up examination 1 week after diagnosis". I thought it would already be in treatment... I searched (now) and it says that treatment is basically replenishing was is lost in the urine. So definitely the wording is like wtf to me
I was thinking since it affected the PCT that Na resorption would be affected as well? But I guess the other segments will pick up the slack?