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Welcome to jkan’s page.
Contributor score: 23


Comments ...

 +4  (nbme24#21)
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piedp-cet is low ihwt xseegunoo si.linun etedpp(c-i adme sa a uctypdrbo fo lunnisi tnocopdiru in het ydetoebpae )dr sviist+ ghih li+nulnoisw dpcpee-t=i ogoxueens lnsiiun b.usea nI a tch-;d&ilg tifciuosat by pxryo

sunshinesweetheart  ugh, I feel like a child could misuse their insulin by accident without proper supervision. Totally thought she had T1DM and not enough guidance on how to use the meds. annoying +3
peqmd  I couldn't rule out if the child was trying to get swole and had a shady dealer. +3
alwaysdivs94  Sorry, where doesn't it talk about insulin abuse in the question? I thought she was administered for an acute exacerbation of heart failure? +




Subcomments ...

submitted by stapes2big(12),
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mI’ not urse tbuao sthi one but teh ywa I thought obuta ti wsa thta ciens het ceeindncfo ailvrnte cnieuldd 1, ti asw not fgitiicnnas. Adn usht p auvle umts eb voaeb 0.50

tea-cats-biscuits  That makes sense! +  
asapdoc  Had the same reasoning +19  
jkan  I get that it's not significant, but why is it 0.05<p<1 and not p>1.0 +10  
jkan  nvm, it's can't be greater than 1 because then it would have a negative% confidence interval which cannot happen (Think if p>0.05 means at least 95% within confidence interval) +9  
charcot_bouchard  p=0.05 means theres 5% chance null hypothesis is true. p=1 means theres 100% chance null hypothesis is true. >1 means >100% chance which isnt possible. +13  
wowo  p is a probability, so can't be greater than 1 +9  
noname  @charcot_bouchard, that is not a good interpretation of p-value. A better interpretation of p=0.05 would be: If in reality there is no increase in risk (RR=1), and if we replicated the same study of the same sample size many different times, then we would expect to find a risk ratio of (X) only about 5% of the time. +2  


submitted by stapes2big(12),
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m’I tno usre abuot siht eno btu teh way I uttghho tubao it asw ttah cenis hte nidcenecfo ivrnealt dceundil ,1 it asw nto tcansifinig. dnA shut p evlau tmus eb bevao 005.

tea-cats-biscuits  That makes sense! +  
asapdoc  Had the same reasoning +19  
jkan  I get that it's not significant, but why is it 0.05<p<1 and not p>1.0 +10  
jkan  nvm, it's can't be greater than 1 because then it would have a negative% confidence interval which cannot happen (Think if p>0.05 means at least 95% within confidence interval) +9  
charcot_bouchard  p=0.05 means theres 5% chance null hypothesis is true. p=1 means theres 100% chance null hypothesis is true. >1 means >100% chance which isnt possible. +13  
wowo  p is a probability, so can't be greater than 1 +9  
noname  @charcot_bouchard, that is not a good interpretation of p-value. A better interpretation of p=0.05 would be: If in reality there is no increase in risk (RR=1), and if we replicated the same study of the same sample size many different times, then we would expect to find a risk ratio of (X) only about 5% of the time. +2