Welcome to famylife’s page.
Contributor score: 77
How is this differentiated from Strep Virdans which is Optochin Resistant? Because Strep Pneumo would also be inhibited by optochin*
its strep viridans. Strep viridans has a "protected chin mask" and strep pneumo is "exposed" in the sketchy.
also just to verify, there is no such thing as phase 0 right?
Not that i know of or is in FA
I've heard animal testing is called phase 0.
If the Infarct was on the right side they you would have a decrease in PCWP
yes exactly. Cardiogenic shock always has decreased CO and increased SVR. PCWP is the tricky part. If its right sided, there isn't enough blood making it to the LA (which is what PCWP measures) thus PCWP would decrease. If it is left sided, as indicated in this question by the crackles in the lungs, the blood is backing up in the left side of the heart so the PCWP would go up.
the key here is the term hydronephrotic kidney. anytime there is that, there is a post renal obstruction of some sort. The fact that he has progressive renal failure just contributes to the idea that his kidneys have seen damage before and are not able to withstand the pressure from the back up as well. I got tripped up on this. The important thing to note is that Hydronephrosis and dilation = back up = increased in volume pressure (hydrostatic)
Am I the only one who thought, my whole life, that it actually originates from the thyroid but just physically connected to the tongue
Does anyone know if SIADH is associated with hypertension? I don't think it is due to the body's response of downregulating aldosterone, but if someone could verify that I would appreciate it.
SIADH -> excessive ADH -> water retention -> atrium excretes more ANP, ventricule excretes more BNP -> water is excreted more. So that is why not too much plasma volume increment, resulting mostly normal BP.
...and just to clarify, they directly inhibit the Ang II receptor (AT1)
I had a doubt- that wouldnt increased RAA lead to increased serum aldosterone as well.
Now I understand that since the receptors are blocked- even the receptors to increase aldosterone secretion by Ang II would also get blocked...
ossificans in which*
Rectal prolapse through posterior vagina ("rectocele").
"When a rectocele becomes large, stool can become trapped within it, making it difficult to have a bowel movement or creating a sensation of incomplete evacuation. Symptoms are usually due to stool trapping, difficulty passing stool, and protrusion of the back of the vagina through the vaginal opening. During bowel movements, women with large, symptomatic rectoceles may describe the need to put their fingers into their vagina and push back toward the rectum to allow the stool to pass (“splinting”). Rectoceles are more common in women who have delivered children vaginally."
why not spasm of external anal sphincter?
After looking it up I think that external anal sphincter spasm would be more associated with rectal pain and maybe fecal incontinence. I chose the same answer because I figured if there was a problem with the rectovaginal septum it would have been noted on physical exam...
I did the same, put sphincter spasm because I thought a rectocele would be found on a physical exam.