An odds ratio greater than 1 signifies increases odds, risk, likelihood -- whichever you prefer to call it. If the 95% confidence interval range does not include 1, then the difference is statistically significant (though not necessarily clinically meaningful).
tallerthanmymomCan someone explain why it is an increase in risk rather than a decrease?
Also, relative to what? Do we just assume it is relative to people who do not exercise regularly?+
bananaUncertain about this, but I think from my memory of the question that the above explanation should say "relative risk" and not odds ratio. The relative risk is the (number women fractured/total exposed)/(number women fractured/total unexposed):: therefore, >1 means that more women got fractured when they exercised. (FA 2020, 258)+1
blahI got confused by the question because I was bringing in my own biases (i.e. doesn't exercising decrease the risk of fractures in this population of women?). If you simply read the question as what does a RR>1 mean? No doubt you'll get the correct answer.+8
chaosawaitsSame, I got confused based almost solely on my understanding that exercise decreased risk of fractures. Then I mixed up statistically significant with clinically significant.+1
an1I feel like a smilier q has popped up on an NBME or UW. But yes, RELATIVE RISK is >1 so that increases the chances. Also, it says old women. They're more likely to actually fracture something while working out in reality too+
submitted by โbwdc(697)
An odds ratio greater than 1 signifies increases odds, risk, likelihood -- whichever you prefer to call it. If the 95% confidence interval range does not include 1, then the difference is statistically significant (though not necessarily clinically meaningful).